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پریس ریلیز
ینگ ڈاکٹرز ایسوسی ایشن پنجاب کے وفد کی گورنر پنجاب سے ملاقات
لاہور (پریس ریلیز) – ینگ ڈاکٹرز ایسوسی ایشن (YDA) پنجاب کے وفد نے گورنر ہاؤس لاہور میں گورنر پنجاب سردار سلیم حیدر سے ملاقات کی۔ ملاقات میں ینگ ڈاکٹرز ایسوسی ایشن سروسز ہسپتال کی سینئر قیادت نے شرکت کی، جن میں چیئرمین YDA پنجاب ڈاکٹر مدثر نواز اشرفی، وائس چیئرمین YDA سروسز ہسپتال ڈاکٹر عمران بھٹی، جوائنٹ سیکرٹری YDA پنجاب ڈاکٹر ذیشان نور ملک، اور صدر جسٹس فار ایف ایم جیز ڈاکٹر رفاقت گجر شامل تھے۔
اس ملاقات میں صوبے بھر کے ہسپتالوں میں درپیش مسائل، طبی سہولیات کی بہتری اور ڈاکٹروں و مریضوں کے حقوق پر تفصیلی تبادلہ خیال کیا گیا۔ وفد نے گورنر پنجاب کو ہسپتالوں میں مریضوں کے لیے مزید سہولیات کی فراہمی اور طبی عملے کی کمی کو پورا کرنے کے لیے فوری اقدامات اٹھانے پر زور دیا۔
مزید برآں، YDA پنجاب کے وفد نے گورنر پنجاب، جو کہ تمام میڈیکل یونیورسٹیوں کے پیٹرن اِن چیف بھی ہیں، سے درخواست کی کہ وہ صوبے کے تمام ہسپتالوں کا سرکاری دورہ کریں تاکہ طبی شعبے کے مسائل کا براہ راست مشاہدہ کر سکیں۔
وفد نے گورنر پنجاب کو ینگ ڈاکٹرز ایسوسی ایشن پنجاب کے زیرِ اہتمام منعقد ہونے والے کنونشن میں بطور مہمان خصوصی شرکت کی دعوت بھی دی، جسے انہوں نے خوش دلی سے قبول کیا۔
ینگ ڈاکٹرز ایسوسی ایشن پنجاب اپنے مشن پر کاربند ہے اور ڈاکٹروں و مریضوں کے حقوق کے تحفظ کے لیے ہر فورم پر اپنی آواز بلند کرتی رہے گی۔
جاری کردہ:
ینگ ڈاکٹرز ایسوسی ایشن پنجاب
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MD/MS-2016
80.Question
Melanocytes are derived from:
Options:
Neuroectoderm
Options:
Mesoderm
Options:
Ectoderm
Options:
Neural crest cells
Correct:
Derivatives of Neural crest Cells: * Connective tissue and bones of face and skull * C-cells of thyroid * Conotruncal septum in heart * Odontoblasts * Autonomic ganglia * Ganglia along spinal and cranial nerves * Adrenal medulla * Schwann cells and Glial cells * Melanocytes
Options:
Subcutaneous tat
M
MD/MS-2016
81.Question
In Kluvar bucy syndrome the lesion is localized in:
Options:
Basal ganglia
Options:
Pineal gland
Options:
Hypothalamus
Options:
Amygdala
Correct:
Features of Kluvar Bucy syndrome: Unilateral or bilateral destruction of Amygdaloid nucleus in these patients results in emotional instability,behavioural changes, restlessness, hyperphagia, visual agnosis and hypers*xuality.
Options:
Thalamus
M
MD/MS-2016
82.Question
All of the following are true statements regarding clara cells EXCEPT:
Options:
They have potential to divide & differentiate into ciliated cells
Options:
They secrete glycosaminoglycan
Options:
They are found in secondary bronchi
Correct:
Clara cells are only found in bronchioles like primary, terminal and respiratory.
Options:
They metabolize air-borne toxins
Options:
All of these
M
MD/MS-2016
83.Question
In adults,T-lymphocytes are produced in:
Options:
Thymus
Options:
Bone marrow
Correct:
T-lymphocytes are produced in bone marrow and matured in Thymus.
Options:
Spleen
Options:
Liver
Options:
Lymph nodes
M
MD/MS-2016
84.Question
All of the following regarding popliteus muscles are true EXCEPT:
Options:
Attached to the lateral aspect of lateral femoral condyle
Options:
When the knee is fully extended, the muscle works to rotate the femur laterally on the tibia
Options:
It also rotates the tibia medially on femur,when foot is off the ground.
Options:
Muscle of superficial group of posterior compartment
Correct:
Muscles of the superficial compartment of the leg are GPS: Gastrocnemius,Plantaris and Soleus Muscles of the deep compartment are: Popliteus, FHL,FDL and Tibialis posterior
Options:
None of these
M
MD/MS-2016
85.Question
All of the following regarding klinefelter syndrome is true EXCEPT:
Options:
It is characterized by testicular hypertrophy and atrophy of breast
Correct:
Klinefelter Syndrome: * Trisomy of s*x chromosome * Mostly due to nondisjunction * Possible Karyotypes are 47XXY, 48 # # * Clinically Tall male with testicular atrophy and Gynaecomastia * Positive barr body
Options:
The karyotype in 80% patient is 47 XXY
Options:
Non disjunction of XX homologus is most common causative agent
Options:
Occasionally patients have karyotype of 48 # #
Options:
Tall male
M
MD/MS-2016
86.Question
Which of the following prostaglandins mediate pain?
Options:
PGE2
Correct:
prostaglandins PGE2 mediates pain.
Options:
PGI2
Options:
PGD2
Options:
PGF2
Options:
PGA2
M
MD/MS-2016
87.Question
All of the following regarding GABA are correct EXCEPT:
Options:
It is inhibitory neurotransmitter only in brain
Options:
GABA-A receptor activation opens Na channels
Correct:
GABA: it is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in brain only i.e. CNS. GABA-A receptor activation opens the chloride channels and chloride influx causes hyperpolarization.
Options:
GABA-B receptor activation opens either K-channels or close Ca+2 - channels
Options:
GABA-A receptors are activated by benzodiazepines
Options:
None of these
M
MD/MS-2016
88.Question
Regarding primary biliary cirrhosis all of the following are ture EXCEPT:
Options:
Autoimmune disorder
Options:
Granulomatous destruction of bile ducts in portal triad
Options:
More common in men
Correct:
Primary Biliary cirrhosis common in females.
Options:
Antimitochondrial Ab are present in >90% cases
Options:
Present in middle age
M
MD/MS-2016
89.Question
Hyperaldosteronism occurs due to:
Options:
Adenoma of zona glomerulosa
Correct:
Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid and released by zona Glomerulosa so primary hyper-aldosteronism is caused by hyperplasia or adenoma of zona Glomerulosa.
Options:
Hypokalemia
Options:
Fluid overload
Options:
Increase renal blood flow
Options:
All of these
M
MD/MS-2016
90.Question
Lung cancer can be caused by:
Options:
Asbestosis
Correct:
Asbestos and smoking are the most important Carcinogens of Lung cancer.
Options:
Pneumoconiosis
Options:
Anthracosis
Options:
Silicosis
Options:
Radon
M
MD/MS-2016
91.Question
Raised levels of Alkaline phosphatase are seen in:
Options:
Obstructive jaundice
Options:
Paget"s disease of bone
Options:
Osteomalacia
Options:
Bone mets
Correct:
Alkaline Phosphatase is increased in both bone and liver diseases.
Options:
All of these
M
MD/MS-2016
92.Question
SGPT is an enzyme specific for disease in:
Options:
Liver
Correct:
SGPT is marker of liver cell necrosis, more specific for liver than any other tissue.
Options:
Heart
Options:
Skeletal muscle
Options:
Lung
Options:
Bone
M
MD/MS-2016
93.Question
Maximum Co2 is transported in the form of:
Options:
HCo3 ion
Correct:
CO2 reacts with H2O in a reaction to form bicarbonate ions ( HCo3 )and so more than 70% is carried in blood in form of these ions.
Options:
Carbamino compound
Options:
Dissolved in plasma
Options:
Undisclosed in plasma as Co2
Options:
None of these
M
MD/MS-2016
94.Question
ABGS of patient show PH 7.2, PCO2 66, HCo3 mmol/L, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
Compensated metabolic acidosis
Options:
Compensated resp. acidosis
Correct:
Primarily its resp. acidosis and its compensated because of increased levels of HCO3.
Options:
Un compensated metabolic acidosis
Options:
Un compensated resp. acidosis
Options:
None of these
M
MD/MS-2016
95.Question
The surface epithelium of palatine tonsil is:
Options:
Stratified squamous
Correct:
Covering epithelium of palatine tonsil is same as that of the oral cavity i.e. stratified squamous epithelium.
Options:
Stratified columnar
Options:
Simple columnar
Options:
Undifferentiated
Options:
Adenosquamous
M
MD/MS-2016
96.Question
In a newborn, which of the following immunoglobulins (Ig) are found in maximum quantity?
Options:
IgM
Options:
lgA
Options:
lgE
Options:
lgG
Correct:
In a newborn, IgG has the highest levels as it is the only lg which can cross placenta.
Options:
All of above
M
MD/MS-2016
97.Question
Which of the following arteries is blocked in stroke involving both motor and sensory areas?
Options:
Anterior cerebral art
Options:
Middle cerebral art
Correct:
Sensory and motor areas located on the lateral surface of cerebrum are supplied by MCA( Middle Cerebral Artery)
Options:
Post cerebral art
Options:
Vertebral art
Options:
Posterior cerebral art
M
MD/MS-2016
98.Question
The intestinal colonic polyp that is not related to malignancy is:
Options:
Tubular polyp
Options:
Villous polyp
Options:
Tubulovillous
Options:
Hyperplastic
Correct:
Hyperplastic or metaplastic Colonic Polyps are NOT pre-malignant.
Options:
Familial adenomatous polyposis
M
MD/MS-2016
99.Question
Anticonvulsant of choice during eclampsia is:
Options:
Phenytoin
Options:
Carbamazepine
Options:
Mg So4
Correct:
Mg So4 is the drug of choice in eclamptic seizures.
Options:
Phenobarbitone
Options:
Lamotrigine
M
MD/MS-2016
00.Question
Tensor veli palatine is supplied by:
Options:
Mandibular division of CN V
Correct:
All muscles of soft palate are supplied by Pharyngeal plexus except Tensor veli palatini which is supplied by mandibular division of V CN.
Options:
CN IX
Options:
CN X
Options:
Maxillary division of CN V
Options:
CN VII
M
MD/MS-2016
01.Question
Which of the following is not a feature of chronic renal failure?
Options:
Anemia
Options:
Hypcalcemia
Options:
M. acidosis
Options:
Hypophosphatemia
Correct:
CRF is characterized by: * Anemia (normocytic normochromic) due to decrease production of EPO * Hypocalcemia due to lack of active Vit.D * M. acidosis due to failure of H-ions excretion * Hyper Kalemia
Options:
Hyperkalemia
M
MD/MS-2016
02.Question
Nasolacrimal duct opens in:
Options:
Superior meatus
Options:
Middle meatus
Options:
Inferior meatus
Correct:
Structures opening in meatuses of lateral wall of nose: * Superior; Post.ethmoidal sinus* Middle; frontal, ant. and middle ethmoidal sinuses * Inferior; Nasolacrimal duct
Options:
Superior conca
Options:
None
M
MD/MS-2016
03.Question
Axillary artery starts at:
Options:
Inner border of first rib
Options:
Outer border of first rib
Correct:
Axillary artery begins at outer border (lateral) of first rib and ends at the inferior border of Teres major.
Options:
Lower border of pectoralis minor
Options:
Lower border of pectorals major
Options:
Sternocleido mastoid muscle
M
MD/MS-2016
04.Question
Which of following substances is not found in the cytoplasm of NK cells?
Options:
TNF - Alpha
Correct:
TNF - Alpha is not present.
Options:
Lymphotoxin
Options:
Lysozyme
Options:
TNF - B
Options:
Perforin
M
MD/MS-2016
05.Question
Substances that are immunogenic only when coupled to a protein carrier are called:
Options:
Opsonins
Options:
Haptens
Correct:
Hapten: Its antigen but not immunogen and can be converted into immunogen when combined with a carrier protein.
Options:
Adjuvants
Options:
Toxoids
Options:
Epitopes
M
MD/MS-2016
06.Question
The sites in or on antigens with which antibodies react are called:
Options:
Haplotypes
Options:
Isotypes
Options:
Epitopes
Correct:
Epitope: It’s a site on antigen which reacts with antibody and the corresponding site on antibody is called Paratope. Haplotype is term used to mention two sets of genes. Different types of lgs are called Isotypes. Idiotype is a unique three dimensional shape of pocket for antigens on antibodies.
Options:
Idiotypes
Options:
Monotypes
M
MD/MS-2016
07.Question
Regarding immunoglobulin all of the following are true EXCEPT:
Options:
IgG is the major immunoglobulin in the serum
Options:
IgE is associated with immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction (Asthma, Anaphylayis)
Options:
Secretory IgA is predominant immunoglobulin in various secretions (Saliva, Tears, Colostrum)
Options:
IgM is predominant antibody in early primary immune response and predominant Ab produced by fetus
Options:
IgG cannot cross placenta
Correct:
IgG is the most abundant Ig in the blood and it can cross placenta as well.
M
MD/MS-2016
08.Question
All of the following complement components are in alternative pathway EXCEPT:
Options:
C1, C2, C4
Correct:
Complement System components are: * Classical pathwary: C1,2 and 4 * Alternative: Properdin, Factors B,D and Magnesium * Common pathwary: C3,5,6,7,8,9
Options:
C5, C6, C7
Options:
C3B
Options:
C8, C9
Options:
Properdins
M
MD/MS-2016
09.Question
The epithelium of Nasopharynx is:
Options:
Pseudostratified ciliated columner
Correct:
Same as that of respiratory epithelium i.e. Pseudo stratified columner ciliated.
Options:
Stratified squamous keratinized
Options:
Stratified squamous non-keratinized
Options:
Simple cuboidal
Options:
Adenosquamous
M
MD/MS-2016
10.Question
Thiazide diuretics cause all side effects EXCEPT:
Options:
Hyonatremia
Options:
Hyper kalemic
Correct:
Side effects of Thiazide diuretics; - Hyper Glycemia - Hyper uricemia - Hyper lipidemia - Hypo natremia - Hypo kalemia
Options:
Hyper glycemia
Options:
Hyper lipidemia
Options:
Hyper uricemia
M
MD/MS-2016
11.Question
All of the following regarding functions of thyroid hormones are correct except:
Options:
Increased BMR
Options:
Increased glycogenolysis
Options:
Decreased lipolysis
Correct:
Normal or increased level of thyroid hormones promote lipolysis while decrease levels promote lipogenesis.
Options:
Increased gluconeogenesis
Options:
None of these
M
MD/MS-2016
12.Question
Calcitonin is tumor marker of:
Options:
Follicular ca of thyroid
Options:
Papillary ca of thyroid
Options:
Anaplastic ca of thyroid
Options:
Medullary ca of thyroid
Correct:
Thyroglobulin is tumor marker of Follicular and Papillary cancer of thyroid, while Calcitonin is for Medullary and Anaplastic does not have any marker.
Options:
Germ cell tumor
M
MD/MS-2016
13.Question
Neisseria meningitides releases:
Options:
Exotoxin
Options:
Endotoxin
Correct:
Being G-ve coccus it produces Endotoxin.
Options:
Both
Options:
None
Options:
Enterotoxin
M
MD/MS-2016
14.Question
Regarding diphyllobothrium latam all of the following are true EXCEPT:
Options:
It is transmitted through undercooked fish which has ingested larvae
Options:
The intermediate host is fish
Options:
Main site affected in human body is intestine
Options:
The drug of choice is praziquantal
Options:
It belongs to Trematoda
Correct:
Diphyllobotherium Latum called fish tape worm belongs to Cestode not trematoda.
M
MD/MS-2016
15.Question
Regarding vibrio cholera all of the following are true EXCEPT:
Options:
It is comma shaped
Options:
It causes rice watery diarrhea
Options:
Enterotoxin permanently activates Gs protein
Options:
Diarrhea is associated with fever and stool shows large number of leucocytes
Correct:
Vibrio cholera: After a to 48 hour incubation period, symptoms begin with the sudden onset of painless watery diarrhea that may quickly become voluminous and is often followed by vomiting. The patient may experience accompanying abdominal cramps, probably from distention of loops of small bowel as a result of the large volume of intestinal secretions. Fever is typically absent.
Options:
It is oxidase positive
M
MD/MS-2016
16.Question
Epitheloid cells are:
Options:
Activated macrophages
Correct:
These are active macrophages.
Options:
Activated lymphocytes
Options:
Activated plasmas cells
Options:
Activated eosinophils
Options:
Activated RBCs
M
MD/MS-2016
17.Question
Caseous gnanulomas are found in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
Options:
Tuberculosis
Options:
Histoplasmosis
Options:
Syphilis
Options:
Brucellosis
Correct:
Remember the rest causes.
Options:
Coccidiomycosis
M
MD/MS-2016
18.Question
Atrophy of zona fasciculate of adrenal cortex due to hypophysectomy results in deficiency of which of the following hormone?
Options:
Mineralocorticoids
Options:
All of these
Options:
Androgen
Options:
Catecholamines
Options:
Glucocorticoids
Correct:
Glucocorticoids are released dominantly by Zona Fasciculata.
M
MD/MS-2016
19.Question
All of the following statements regarding barret esophagus are correct EXCEPT:
Options:
Results from prolonged reflux esophagitis
Options:
Mucosa shows gastric metaplasia
Correct:
Barret esophagus: - Complication of GERD - Glandular metaplasia in distal Esophagus due to acid reflux - Its intestinal type metaplasia - Most common complication is ulceration with stricture formation - Dysplasia leading to Adenocarcinoma
Options:
Metaplasia is characterized by presence of goblet cells and acid mucin on alcian blue stain
Options:
It is a precancerous lesion that gives rise to adenocarcinoma
Options:
It is related to H. Pyloric
M
MD/MS-2016
20.Question
Breast atrophy occurs due to:
Options:
Decrease estrogen level
Options:
Decrease progesterone level
Options:
Both a & b
Correct:
Estrogen is involved in the growth of Ducts and Stroma while Progesterone in development of Lobules and alveoli of breast.
Options:
None of these
Options:
Decrease LHRH level
M
MD/MS-2016
21.Question
Vinylchloride gives rise to:
Options:
Skin cancer
Options:
Lung cancer
Options:
Bladder cancer
Options:
Angiosarcoma of liver
Correct:
Vinylchloride can cause Angiosarcoma of liver.
Options:
Blood cancer
M
MD/MS-2016
22.Question
The causative organism of ludwing angina is:
Options:
Staphylococcus aureus
Options:
Streptococcus viridian
Options:
Streptococcus pyogenes
Correct:
Ludwig angina is cellulitis of floor of mouth caused by Streptococcus Pyogenes.
Options:
Streptococcus agalactiae
Options:
None of these
M
MD/MS-2016
23.Question
Enteropeptidase enzyme deficiency causes unavailability of which of the following enzymes in intestine during digestion?
Options:
Trypsin
Correct:
Enteropeptidase or Enterokinase is synthesized by brush border cells of small intestine, it converts the Trypsinogen into Trypsin and thus initiates the cascade of proteopytic activity in gut.
Options:
Amylase
Options:
Lipase
Options:
Elastase
Options:
Peroxidase
M
MD/MS-2016
Question
Compare to HMWH heparin, enoxaparin is:
Options:
Can be used without monitoring of APTT
Correct:
As Enoxaparin is LMWH, so does not need monitoring by APTT during treatment. It is long acting and has less complications as compare to HMWH.
Options:
Has a shorter durations of action
Options:
Is more likely to be given intravenously
Options:
Is more likely to cause thrombosis and thrombocytopenia
Options:
All of above
M
MD/MS-2016
Question
The anti-caogulant activity of warfarin can be accentuated by all of the following EXCEPT:
Options:
Rifampicin
Correct:
As Rifampacin is P450 inducer so will decrease action of warfarin.
Options:
Aspirin
Options:
Phenylbutazon
Options:
Cimetidine
Options:
None of the above
M
MD/MS-2016
Question
Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting the synthesis of:
Options:
Clotting factors in liver
Options:
Prostacyclin in vascular endothelium
Options:
cAMP is platelets
Options:
Thromboxane A2 in platelets
Correct:
Aspirin irreversibly blocks the action of platelets by inhibiting the production of thromboxane A2
Options:
Inhibiting factor VII
M
MD/MS-2016
Question
Celiac artery supplies all of the following organs EXCEPT:
Options:
Liver
Options:
Spleen
Options:
Pancreas
Options:
Jejunum
Correct:
Celiac artery is artery of FOREGUT and its derivatives.
Options:
Gall bladder
M
MD/MS-2016
28.Question
All of the following are complications of total parenteral nutrition, EXCEPT:
Options:
Hypoglycemia
Options:
Fluid overload
Options:
Excess of folate and zinc
Correct:
Chronic def. syndromes during TPN cause def. of essential fatty acids, zinc, minerals and trace elements.
Options:
Fatty liver
Options:
Gall bladder stasis and biliary sludging
M
MD/MS-2016
29.Question
All of the following are true regarding gall bladder EXCEPT:
Options:
Peritoneum completely surrounds the round fundus of gall bladder
Options:
Lies in gall bladder fossa on visceral surface of (R) lobe of liver
Options:
Quadrate lobe on (R) side of gall bladder fossa
Correct:
Fundus is the wide end of gall bladder projecting from infection. Border of liver and usually located at the tip of 9th costal cartilage in midclavicular line and its completely surrounded by peritoneum, Quadrate lobe lies on the left of gall bladder fossa. Body lies anteriosuperior to duodenum.
Options:
Body lies anterior to duodenum
Options:
None of these
M
MD/MS-2016
30.Question
Lymphatic drainage of cervix include all of the following EXCEPT:
Options:
Internal iliac lymph nodes
Options:
Superficial inguinal nodes
Correct:
Cervix lymphatics: Main Internal iliac and some external plus sacreal LN.Superficial inguinal LN drain part of uterus where round ligament is attached.
Options:
External iliac lymph nodes
Options:
Sacral lymph nodes
Options:
None of these
M
MD/MS-2016
31.Question
Left Anterior descending artery in heart is accompained by:
Options:
Small cardiac vein
Options:
Middle cardiac vein
Options:
Great cardiac vein
Correct:
LAD is accompained by Great cardiac vein in anterior interventricular groove. Small cardiac vein accompaines right marginal branch of RCA. Middle cardiac vein accompanies the Posterior descending artery in post. Interventricular groove.
Options:
Ant cardiac vein
Options:
Superior cardiac vein
M
MD/MS-2016
32.Question
The branch of internal iliac which remains in true pelvis is:
Options:
Obturator artery
Options:
Internal pudendal artery
Options:
Inferior gluteal artery
Options:
Lateral sacral artery
Correct:
Obturator artery passes through obturator foramen and supplies in meidal compartment of thigh. Internal pudendal artery is the artery of perinum so leaves the pelvis through greater sciatic foramen, reenters through lesser sciatic foramen and then traverses the pundendal canal and enters in perineum to supply it. Inferior gluteal artery enters in buttock through greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis.
Options:
External gluteal artery
M
MD/MS-2016
33.Question
The following nerve can be damaged during apendecetomy:
Options:
Iliohypogastric
Correct:
Iliohypogastric during appendectomy and ilioinguinal during hernioraphy.
Options:
Ilioinguinal
Options:
Lateral femoral cut. nerve
Options:
Genitofemoral nerve
Options:
puedendal nerve
M
MD/MS-2016
34.Question
Which to the following prostaglandin mediates pain:
Options:
PGE2
Correct:
Pain in mediated by PGE2 and substance P.
Options:
PDG2
Options:
PGI2
Options:
PGF2
Options:
PDA2
M
MD/MS-2016
35.Question
Nicotinic acid deficiency causes:
Options:
Beri beri
Options:
Wernicke - korsakoff synd
Options:
Glossitis
Options:
Pellagra
Correct:
Nicotinic acid (Vit.B3/Niacin) deficiency causes PELLAGRA which is characterized by 3D i.e. Dermatitis, Dementia, Diarrhea.
Options:
Neuropathy
M
MD/MS-2016
36.Question
Which of the following is most common caused of cardiogenic shock?
Options:
Acute massive pulmonary embolus
Options:
Pericardial tamponade
Options:
Sudden onset valuvlar regurgitation
Options:
Myocardial infarction
Correct:
Most common cause of cardiogenic shock is acute massive M.I.
Options:
Atrial fibrillation
M
MD/MS-2016
37.Question
Which one is the most important test in diagnosis of cardiogenic shock?
Options:
CVP
Options:
PCWP
Correct:
Hemodynamic parameters of Cardiogenic shock: * CO Low * PCWP High (differentiates from other shocks) * SVR High
Options:
Blood pressure
Options:
ECG
Options:
Holter monitoring
M
MD/MS-2016
38.Question
All of the following muscles push towards opposite side EXCEPT:
Options:
Genioglossus
Options:
Pterygoids
Options:
Sternocleidomastoid
Options:
Muscle of soft palate
Correct:
Muscles of soft palate are pulling muscles that is why when they contract UVULA moves to healthy side or moves away from diseased side.
Options:
None of these
M
MD/MS-2016
39.Question
Micturition reflex center is situated in:
Options:
L2, L3, L4 segments
Options:
L5, L1
Options:
S2, S3, S4
Correct:
Micturition reflex center at the level of spinal cord is in S2, S3, S4 (best S2, S3) and at the level of Brain Stem its located in Rostral Pons (Barrington"s center)
Options:
L1, L2
Options:
T12, L1
M
MD/MS-2016
40.Question
Which vessel is most commonly used in CABG?
Options:
Long saphenous vein
Correct:
Reversed long saphenous graft is most commonly used for CABG.
Options:
Left internal mammary artery
Options:
Cephalic vein
Options:
Radial artery
Options:
Ulnar artery
M
MD/MS-2016
41.Question
All of the following are rotator cuff muscles EXCEPT:
Options:
Supraspinatus
Options:
Infraspinatus
Options:
Teres minor
Options:
Teres major
Correct:
Rotator cuff muscles: SITS - Supraspinatus - Infraspinatus - Teres minor - Subscapularis
Options:
Subscapularis
M
MD/MS-2016
42.Question
Which antithyroid drug is safe in pregnancy?
Options:
Propylthiouracil
Correct:
As PTU can’t cross placenta so it’s the safest anti thyroid drug during pregnancy.
Options:
Methimazole
Options:
Iodide
Options:
Radioactive iodine
Options:
Beta blocker
M
MD/MS-2016
43.Question
Propylthiouracil acts by:
Options:
Inhibition of iodination of tyrosyl residue on thyroglobulin
Options:
Blocking of coupling of MIT and DIT
Options:
Inhibiting proteolytic release of T3 and T4 from thyroglobulin
Options:
a & b
Correct:
PTU: * Sulphur containing thioamide * Blocks iodination of Tyrosine * Blocks coupling as well * Doesnott inhibit release of preformed hormones so action is slow (3-4 weeks) * Safe drug during pregnancy and lactation * Skin rash is most common side effect but can cause agranulocytosis and hypoprothrombinemia and liver dysfunction.
Options:
Acting centrally on CNS
M
MD/MS-2016
44.Question
Which of the following anti thyroid drugs is used for the reduction of vascularity of thyroid gland preoperatively?
Options:
Propylthiouracil
Options:
Methimazole
Options:
Iodide
Correct:
Drug of choice for the immediate preparation of hyperthyroid patient is Iodide.
Options:
Radioactive iodine
Options:
Beta blocker
M
MD/MS-2016
45.Question
Which of the following vessel will have the highest blood pressure in a standing person?
Options:
Femoral artery
Options:
Dorsalis pedis artery
Correct:
Farthest the artery below the heart, highest the blood pressure.
Options:
Radial artery
Options:
Cerebral artery
Options:
Carotid artery
M
MD/MS-2016
46.Question
Pulmonary resistance decreases in:
Options:
Exercise
Correct:
Hypoxia causes pulmonary vasoconstriction so increases the resistance while exercise decreases the resistance by causing vasodilatation probably due to high PAO2 (alvelar) and release of Beta adrenergic catecholamines.
Options:
Expiration
Options:
Hypoxia
Options:
Haemrrhage
Options:
Hypertension
M
MD/MS-2016
47.Question
Clomiphene citrate causes ovulation by:
Options:
Blocking signal receptions in pituitary
Correct:
CLOMIPHENE induces Ovulation - None steroidal compound - Selectively blocks Estrogen receptors in Pituitary - Thus reduces Negative Feedback and increase FSH and LH which cause Ovulation.
Options:
Increases FSH & LH output
Options:
Increase growth hormone
Options:
Decreases FSH & LH
Options:
Increase estrogen
M
MD/MS-2016
48.Question
Red tongue can occur in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
Options:
Vit-B12 deficiency
Options:
Folic acid
Options:
Riboflavin acid
Options:
Iron
Options:
Vit-B6
Correct:
D/D of Red Tongue: * Vit deficiency like B6, B12, Riboflavin * Plummer vinson syndrome * Amyloidosis * Kawasaki disease
M
MD/MS-2016
49.Question
Action of Vit-D on bone is:
Options:
Bone absorption
Options:
Bone mineralization
Options:
Both a & b
Correct:
Vit-D under normal conditions deposit calcium and phosphate in bone and at abnormally high activity level it causes bone resorption and releases calcium and phosphate.
Options:
Bone resorption
Options:
None of above
M
MD/MS-2016
50.Question
Alpha-2 adrenergic receptors are located on:
Options:
Pupillary dilator muscle
Options:
Pilomotor smooth muscle
Options:
Heart
Options:
Fat cells
Correct:
Alpha-2 receptors on fat cells inhibit lipolysis.
Options:
All of above
M
MD/MS-2016
51.Question
Sympathetic alpha adrenergic stimulation causes all of the following EXCEPT:
Options:
Mydriasis
Options:
Stimulation of glycogenolysis
Options:
Bladder sphincter contraction
Options:
Stimulation of lipolsys
Correct:
Sympathetic alpha adrenergic stimulation causes all of given except Stimulation of lipolysis.
Options:
None of above
M
MD/MS-2016
52.Question
In going from a lying down to an upright position, the change in pressure will be greatest in which of the following vessel:
Options:
Aorta
Options:
Pulmonary artery
Options:
Femoral artery
Correct:
Highest pressure will develop in femoral artery.
Options:
Sub clavian artery
Options:
Pulmonary vein
M
MD/MS-2016
53.Question
Muscles supplied by hypoglossal nerve arise from:
Options:
Pharynged arch 1
Options:
Pharynged arch 2
Options:
Pharynged arch 3
Options:
Occipital somites
Correct:
XII CN is not the nerve of Pharyngeal arches. It supplies muscles of tongue which are derivative of occipital somites.
Options:
Cervical somites
M
MD/MS-2016
54.Question
Fracture of neck of fibula causes palsy of:
Options:
Femoral nerve
Options:
Superficial peroneal
Options:
Deep peroneal nerve
Options:
Tibial nerve
Options:
Common peroneal nerve
Correct:
Common peroneal nerve wraps around the neck of fibula and this is the most common site where it get damaged especially in fracture situtation.
M
MD/MS-2016
55.Question
Complete depolarization of heart is shown by:
Options:
U-wave
Options:
ST segment
Options:
QT segment
Options:
PR segment
Options:
QRS complex
Correct:
Complete depolarization of heart is represented by QRS complex in ECG.
M
MD/MS-2016
56.Question
Which of the following transform into malignancy commonly:
Options:
Leukoplakia
Correct:
Leukoplakia is the most common pre-malignant lesion of oral cavity.
Options:
Keratoacanthoma
Options:
Seborrheic keratosis
Options:
Freckle
Options:
All of above
M
MD/MS-2016
57.Question
In right colon surgery which of the following may involve?
Options:
Aorta
Options:
Inferior vena cava
Correct:
While removing the Ca caecum or ascending colon, the structures at risk are IVC and right ureter.
Options:
Spleen
Options:
Pancreas
Options:
Subclavian artery
M
MD/MS-2016
58.Question
Infection from 1st web space between thumb and first finger goes to which lymph node?
Options:
Clavicular
Options:
Supraclavicular
Options:
Epitrochlear
Options:
Axillary
Options:
Infraclavicular
Correct:
Lymphatics from first web space of hand travel with cephalic vein and drain into infraclavicular group of LN.
M
MD/MS-2016
59.Question
Lateral horn of spinal cord exists in:
Options:
Thoracic spine
Correct:
Lateral horn represents the sympathetic motor control center and located from T1 to L2/L3.
Options:
Cervical spine
Options:
Lumbar Spine
Options:
Sacral spine
Options:
All of these
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