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NCLEX Daily Review for AIIMS Prepration by Birbal SINGH, Rishikesh (2026)

26/07/2019

related to topic
by Birbal Singh ✍️

Q:-1.The common normal site of nidation/implantation in the uterus is:

A. Upper uterine portion
B. Mid-uterine area
C. Lower uterine segment
D. Lower cervical segment

Q:-2. Which of the following is the most common kind of placental adherence seen in pregnant women?

A. Accreta
B. Placenta previa
C. Percreta
D. Increta

Q:-3. A 39-year-old at 37 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with complaints of va**nal bleeding following the use of co***ne 1 hour earlier. Which complication is most likely causing the client’s complaint of va**nal bleeding?

A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Spontaneous abortion

Q:-4. The nurse is caring for a client in labor. The external fetal monitor shows a pattern of variable decelerations in fetal heart rate. What should the nurse do first?

A. Change the client’s position.
B. Prepare for emergency cesarean section.
C. Administer oxygen.
D. Check for placenta previa.

Q:-5. A pregnant client is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. In explaining the diagnosis, the nurse tells the client that the usual treatment for partial placenta previa is which of the following?

A. Activity limited to bed rest
B. Platelet infusion
C. Immediate cesarean delivery
D. Labor induction with oxytocin

Q:-6. A nurse assists in the va**nal delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery, the nurse observes the umbilical cord lengthen and a spurt of blood from the va**na. The nurse documents these observations as signs of:

A. Hematoma
B. Placenta previa
C. Uterine atony
D. Placental separation

Q:-7. A nurse in the postpartum unit is caring for a client who has just delivered a newborn infant following a pregnancy with placenta previa. The nurse reviews the plan of care and prepares to monitor the client for which of the following risks associated with placenta previa?

A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
B. Chronic hypertension
C. Infection
D. Hemorrhage

Q:-8. A maternity nurse is preparing for the admission of a client in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy that is experiencing va**nal bleeding and has a suspected diagnosis of placenta previa. The nurse reviews the physician’s orders and would question which order?
A. Prepare the client for an ultrasound
B. Obtain equipment for external electronic fetal heart monitoring
C. Obtain equipment for a manual pelvic examination
D. Prepare to draw a Hgb and Hct blood sample

Q:-9. Maureen in her third trimester arrives at the emergency room with painless va**nal bleeding. Which of the following conditions is suspected?

a. Placenta previa
b. Abruptio placentae
c. Premature labor
d. Sexually transmitted disease

Q:-10. Tyra experienced painless va**nal bleeding has just been diagnosed as having a placenta previa. Which of the following procedures is usually performed to diagnose placenta previa?

a. Amniocentesis
b. Digital or speculum examination
c. External fetal monitoring
d. Ultrasound

by Birbal Singh ✍️

26/07/2019

related to topic period
by Birbal Singh ✍️

Q:-1.Which of the following findings would be a source of concern if noted during the assessment of a woman who is 12 hours postpartum?

A. Postural hypotension
B. Temperature of 100.4°F
C. Bradycardia — pulse rate of 55 BPM
D. Pain in left calf with dorsiflexion of left foot

Q:-2. Which of the following complications is most likely responsible for a delayed postpartum hemorrhage?

A. Cervical laceration
B. Clotting deficiency
C. Perineal laceration
D. Uterine subinvolution

By Birbal Singh ✍️

26/07/2019

related to topic period
by Birbal Singh ✍️

Q:-1. A postpartum nurse is preparing to care for a woman who has just delivered a healthy newborn infant. In the immediate postpartum period the nurse plans to take the woman’s vital signs:

A. Every 30 minutes during the first hour and then every hour for the next two hours.
B. Every 15 minutes during the first hour and then every 30 minutes for the next two hours.
C. Every hour for the first 2 hours and then every 4 hours
D. Every 5 minutes for the first 30 minutes and then every hour for the next 4 hours.

Q:-2. A postpartum nurse is taking the vital signs of a woman who delivered a healthy newborn infant 4 hours ago. The nurse notes that the mother’s temperature is 100.2*F. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

A. Retake the temperature in 15 minutes
B. Notify the physician
C. Document the findings
D. Increase hydration by encouraging oral fluids

Q:-3. The nurse is assessing the lochia on a 1 day PP patient. The nurse notes that the lochia is red and has a foul-smelling odor. The nurse determines that this assessment finding is:

A. Normal
B. Indicates the presence of infection
C. Indicates the need for increasing oral fluids
D. Indicates the need for increasing ambulation

Q:-4.A PP nurse is providing instructions to a woman after delivery of a healthy newborn infant. The nurse instructs the mother that she should expect normal bowel elimination to return:

A. One the day of the delivery
B. 3 days PP
C. 7 days PP
D. within 2 weeks PP

Q:-5. A nurse is preparing to assess the uterine fundus of a client in the immediate postpartum period. When the nurse locates the fundus, she notes that the uterus feels soft and boggy. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most appropriate initially?

A. Massage the fundus until it is firm
B. Elevate the mother’s legs
C. Push on the uterus to assist in expressing clots
D. Encourage the mother to void

Q:-6. A PP client is being treated for DVT. The nurse understands that the client’s response to treatment will be evaluated by regularly assessing the client for:

A. Dysuria, ecchymosis, and vertigo
B. Epistaxis, hematuria, and dysuria
C. Hematuria, ecchymosis, and epistaxis
D. Hematuria, ecchymosis, and vertigo

Q:-7. A nurse is assessing a client in the 4th stage if labor and notes that the fundus is firm but that bleeding is excessive. The initial nursing action would be which of the following?

A. Massage the fundus
B. Place the mother in the Trendelenburg’s position
C. Notify the physician
D. Record the findings

Q:-8. Which of the following factors might result in a decreased supply of breastmilk in a PP mother?

A. Supplemental feedings with formula
B. Maternal diet high in vitamin C
C. An alcoholic drink
D. Frequent feedings

Q:-9.On which of the postpartum days can the client expect lochia serosa?

A. Days 3 and 4 PP
B. Days 3 to 10 PP
C. Days 10-14 PP
D. Days 14 to 42 PP

Q:-10.What type of milk is present in the breasts 7 to 10 days PP?

A. Colostrum
B. Hind milk
C. Mature milk
D. Transitional milk

Q:-11.Which of the following complications is most likely responsible for a delayed postpartum hemorrhage?

A. Cervical laceration
B. Clotting deficiency
C. Perineal laceration
D. Uterine subinvolution

Q:-12. Which of the following circumstances is most likely to cause uterine atony and lead to PP hemorrhage?

A. Hypertension
B. Cervical and va**nal tears
C. Urine retention
D. Endometritis

Q:-13. Which type of lochia should the nurse expect to find in a client 2 days PP?

A. Foul-smelling
B. Lochia serosa
C. Lochia alba
D. Lochia rubra

By Birbal Singh ✍️

19/07/2019

related to Respiratory System
by Birbal Singh

The term “blue bloater” refers to which of the following conditions?

Q:-1. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
2. Asthma
3. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
4. Emphysema

Q:-2. The term “pink puffer” refers to the client with which of the following conditions?

1. ARDS
2. Asthma
3. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
4. Emphysema
by Birbal Singh

19/07/2019

RELATED TO PHARMA
By Birbal Singh

Q:-1. The physician orders an intramuscular injection of Demerol for the postoperativepatient’s pain. When preparing to draw up the medication, the nurse is careful to remove the correct vial from the narcotics cabinet. It is labeled

A. simethicone.
B. albuterol.
C. meperidine.
D. ibuprofen.

Q:-2. A nurse has taught a client taking a xanthine bronchodilator about beverages to avoid. The nurse determines that the client understands the information if the client chooses which of the following beverages from the dietary menu?

A. chocolate milk
B. cranberry juice
C. coffee
D. cola

Q:-3. A client is taking famotidine (Pepcid) asks the home care nurse what would be the best medication to take for a headache. The nurse tells the client that it would be best to take:

A. aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid, ASA)
B. ibuprofen (Motrin)
C. acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D. naproxen (Naprosyn)

By Birbal Singh

18/07/2019

related to NERVE SYSTEM.
Q.1-5
by Birbal Singh

Q:-1. A client has been pronounced brain dead. Which findings would the nurse assess? Check all that apply.

1. Decerebrate posturing
2. Dilated nonreactive pupils
3. Deep tendon reflexes
4. Absent corneal reflex

Q:-2. A client has signs of increased ICP. Which of the following is an early indicator of deterioration in the client’s condition?

1. Widening pulse pressure
2. Decrease in the pulse rate
3. Dilated, fixed pupil
4. Decrease in LOC

Q:-3. Which of the following respiratory patterns indicate increasing ICP in the brain stem?

1. Slow, irregular respirations
2. Rapid, shallow respirations
3. Asymmetric chest expansion
4. Nasal flaring

Q:-4. Which neurotransmitter is responsible for may of the functions of the frontal lobe?

1. Dopamine
2. GABA
3. Histamine
4. Norepinephrine

Q:-5 A 30-year-old was admitted to the progressive care unit with a C5 fracture from a motorcycle accident. Which of the following assessments would take priority?

1. Bladder distension
2. Neurological deficit
3. Pulse ox readings
4. The client’s feelings about the injury

18/07/2019

Q:-15.Daniel is diagnosed of having hyperthyroidism (Graves’ disease). Which of the following is a drug of choice for his condition?

A. Furosemide (Lasix)
B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
C. Propranolol (Inderal)
D. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
by Birbal Singh

18/07/2019

related to TUBES
Nasogastric Tubes
Tracheostomy Tubes
Endotracheal Tubes (FOR RECENT EXAM)*
By Birbal Singh

Q:-1. A nurse is checking the nasogastric tube position of a client receiving a long term therapy of Omeprazole (Prisolec) by aspirating the stomach contents to check for the PH level. The nurse proves that correct tube placement if the PH level is?

A. 7.75.
B. 7.5.
C. 6.5.
D. 5.5.

Q:-2. Before feeding a client via NGT, the nurse checks for residual and obtains a residual amount of 90ml. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?

A. Discard the residual amount.
B. Hold the due feeding.
C. Skip the feeding and administer the next feeding due in 4 hours.
D. Reinstill the amount and continue with administering the feeding.

Q:-3. Continuous type of feedings is administered over a __ hour period.?

A. 4.
B. 12.
C. 24.
D. 36.

Q:-4. A client is subjected to undergo a chest x-ray to confirm the endotracheal tube placement. The tube should be how many centimeters above the carina?

A. 2-4 cm.
B. 1.5-3 cm.
C. 1-2 cm.
D. 0.5-1 cm.

Q:-5 After the client had tolerated the weaning process, the physician ordered the removal of the endotracheal tube and will be shifted into a nasal cannula. Which of the following findings after the removal requires immediate intervention by the physician?

A. Sore throat.
B. Hoarseness of the voice.
C. Coughing out blood.
D. Neck discomfort.

Q:-6. The nurse is assessing a client with an endotracheal tube and observes that the client can make verbal sounds. What is the most likely cause of this?

A. This is a normal finding.
B. There is a leak.
C. There is an occlusion.
D. The endotracheal tube is displaced
BY Birbal Singh

17/07/2019

**Questions related to genitourinary system
Q:-1. The nurse is aware that the following laboratory values supports a diagnosis of pyelonephritis?

A. Myoglobinuria
B. Ketonuria
C. Pyuria
D. Low white blood cell (WBC) count

Q:-2. A female client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is receiving a hemodialysis treatment. After hemodialysis, nurse Sarah knows that the client is most likely to experience:

A. Hematuria.
B. Weight loss.
C. Increased urine output.
D. Increased blood pressure.

Q:-3. Nurse Lily is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely prompted the client to seek medical attention?

A. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
B. Cauliflower-like warts on the p***s
C. Painful red papules on the shaft of the p***s
D. Foul-smelling discharge from the p***s

Q:-4. Nurse Pete is reviewing the report of a client’s routine urinalysis. Which value should the nurse consider abnormal?

A. Specific gravity of 1.03
B. Urine pH of 3.0
C. Absence of protein
D. Absence of glucose

Q:-5. A male client is scheduled for a renal clearance test. Nurse Sheldon should explain that this test is done to assess the kidneys’ ability to remove a substance from the plasma in:

A. 1 minute.
B. 30 minutes.
C. 1 hour.
D. 24 hours.

Q:-6. A male client in the short-procedure unit is recovering from renal angiography in which a femoral puncture site was useD. When providing postprocedure care, the nurse should:

A. Keep the client’s knee on the affected side bent for 6 hours.
B. Apply pressure to the puncture site for 30 minutes.
C. Check the client’s pedal pulses frequently.
D. Remove the dressing on the puncture site after vital signs stabilize.

Q:-7. A female client is admitted for treatment of chronic renal failure (CRF). Nurse Julian knows that this disorder increases the client’s risk of:

A. Water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate.
B. A decreased serum phosphate level secondary to kidney failure.
C. An increased serum calcium level secondary to kidney failure.
D. Metabolic alkalosis secondary to retention of hydrogen ions.

Q:-8. Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated to treat a female client’s uremia. Which finding signals a significant problem during this procedure?

A. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
B. Hematocrit (HCT) of 35%
C. Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl
D. White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3

Q:-9. For a male client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), which nursing intervention is most important?

A. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing
B. Promoting carbohydrate intake
C. Limiting fluid intake
D. Providing pain-relief measures

Q:10. A female client requires hemodialysis. Which of the following drugs should be withheld before this procedure?

A. Phosphate binders
B. Insulin
C. Antibiotics
D. Cardiac glycosides
by Birbal Singh

17/07/2019

Q:-12. Which of the following medications are most likely to cause hypothyroidism? (Select all that apply.)

A. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
B. Furosemide (Lasix)
C. Docusate sodium (Colace)
D. Rifampin (Rifadin)
by Birbal Singh

17/07/2019

Q:-11. The client underwent a transurethral resection of the prostate gland 24 hours ago and is on continuous bladder irrigation. Nurse Yonny is aware that the following nursing interventions is appropriate?

A. Tell the client to try to urinate around the catheter to remove blood clots.
B. Restrict fluids to prevent the client’s bladder from becoming distended.
C. Prepare to remove the catheter.
D. Use aseptic technique when irrigating the catheter.
by Birbal Singh

17/07/2019

Q:-10.The nurse is caring for a client admitted with spinal cord injury. The nurse minimizes the risk of compounding the injury most effectively by:

1. Keeping the client on a stretcher
2. Logrolling the client on a firm mattress
3. Logrolling the client on a soft mattress
4. Placing the client on a Stryker frame
by Birbal Singh

NCLEX Daily Review for AIIMS Prepration by Birbal SINGH

26/07/2019

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