PMDC Exam Preparation & Discuss

18/09/2020

– PHARMACOLOGY (genral, cvs, cns)

General pharmacology

1) Therapeutic drug monitoring is used in -
a. Diuretic
b. Metformin
c. Levodopa
d. Digoxin
Ans: (d)

2) Maintenance dose is calculated by using value of-

a. Clearance
b. Volume of distribution
c. Oral bioavailability
d. Daily dosage
Ans: (a)

3) Pharmacovigilance is used for -

a. To monitor drug toxicity
b. To monitor unauthorized drug manufacture
c. Monitoring of students
d. Check costs
Ans: (a)

4) Branch that deals with medicinal drugs obtained from plants and other natural resources -
a. Pharmacognosy
b. Pharmacogenetics
c. Pharmacogenomics
d. Phannacopia
Ans: (a)

5) False regarding cytochrome P 450 is -

a. They are essential for the production of cholesterols, steroids, prostacyclines and thromboxane A2
b. They absorb light with 450nm wavelength
c. They occur predominantly in liver
d. They are non heme proteins
Ans: (d)

6) Most common mitochondrial enzyme for detoxification reaction is -

a. CYP 3A4
b. CYP tA2
c. CYP 2A6
d. CYP 2B6
Ans: (a)

7) Re**al route -

a. Used for irritant and unpleasant drugs
b. Cannot be used in unconscious patient
c. Predictable absorption of drug
d. Diazepam cannot be given via re**al route of administration
Ans: (a)

😎 Most variable absorption is seen with ------------ route-

a. Oral
b. Intramuscular
c. Intravenous
d. Per re**al
Ans: (a)

9) Transdermal patch is not used for-

a. GTN
b. Fentanyl
c. Ni****ne
d. Naloxone
Ans: (d)

10) Loading dose depends on -
a. Volume of distribution
b. Elimination rate
c. Half life
d. Plasma volume
Ans: (a)

11) Prodrug
a. Levodopa
b. Pioglitazone
c. Dexamethasone
d. Captopril
Ans: (a)

12) Counterfeit drug-
a. Fake medicine
b. Contains the wrong ingredient
c. They have active ingredient in wrong dose
d. All the above
Ans: (d)

13) A young child weighing 20 kg was given a drug in the dose 100mg/kg body weight. The plasma concentration of the drug is 2mg/dl and the clearance is 200 ml/hr. What is the time required to reach steady state plasma concentration -

a. 10 hrs
b. 20 hrs
c. 30 hrs
d. 40 hrs
Ans: (b)

14) Glucuronidation takes place in -

a. Liver
b. RBC
c. Pancreas
d. Thyroid
Ans: (a)

15) Plasma protein bound drug is distributed in -------------- compartment -
a. Extracellular
b. Intravascular
c. Interstitial
d. Extravascular
Ans: (b)

16) Drug that does not show zero order kinetics-
a. Phenytoin
b. Tolbutamide
c. Alcohol
d. Fomepizole
Ans: (d)

17) Approximate dose of drug in a 5 years old child -
a. Same as adult dose
b. Half of adult dose
c. 1/3rd of adult dose
d. 1/4th of adult dose

Ans: (c)

18) Drugs or biological products for diagnosis, treatment or prevention of a rare disease are called-

a. Orphan drugs
b. Rare drugs
c. Extinct drugs
d. Essential drugs
Ans: (a)

19) Essential drugs -

a. Included in national pharmacopoeia
b. Should always be present at PHC
c. Those that satisfy the primary health care needs of the population
d. Lifesaving medications
Ans: (c)

20) Xenobiotics are metabolized to-

a. Increase water solubility
b. Increase lipid solubility
c. Make them nonpolar
d. None of the above
Ans: (a)

21) A drug having 40% absorption and hepatic extraction ratio of 0.6. What is the bioavailability of that drug?
a. 16%
b. 24%
c. 20%
d. 28%
Ans: (a)

Cardiovascular system

1) Alpha la blocker -
a. Tamsulosin
b. Prazosin
c. Terazosin
d. Clonidine
Ans: (a)

2) Dopamine at 1-2 microgram/Kg/min produces-
a. Renal vasodilatation
b. Positive ionotropic effect
c. Mesenteric vasoconstriction
d. Generalised vasoconstriction
Ans: (a)

3) Platelet adhesion is inhibited by -
a. Nitric oxide
b. Substance P
c. Thrombin
d. IL 2
Ans: (a)

4) Which of the following is the longest acting oral anticoagulant?
a. Bishydroxycoumarin
b. Warfarin
c. Acenocoumarol
d. Phenindione
Ans: (a)

5) Which drug does not affect warfarin activity?
a. Rifampicin
b. Phenytoin
c. Amiodarone
d. Propylthiouracil
Ans: (d)

6) Univalent direct thrombin inhibitor
a. Argatroban
b. Hirudin
c. Bivalirudin
d. Lepirudin
Ans: (a)

7) Streptokinase causes increase in -

a. Plasmin
b. Thrombin
c. Kallikrein
d. Angiotensin II
Ans: (a)

😎 Heparin activates following factors except -
a. IIa
b. VIIa
c. IXa
d. Xa

Ans: (b)

9) Digitalis produces which of the following changes in ECG?

a. Tall T waves
b. ST segment elevation
c. Prolonged QT interval
d. Prolonged PR interval

Ans: (d)

10) Prolong QT interval
a. Nalidixic acid
b. Ofloxacin
c. Gatifloxacin
d. Pefloxacin

Ans: (c)

11) Decreases lipoprotein A in blood -
a. Statin
b. Nicotinic acid
c. Ezetimibe
d. CETP inhibitors
Ans: (b)

12) Function of M2 receptor in heart -

a. SA node hyperpolarisation
b. AV node increased velocity of conduction
c. Increased contractility of ventricles
d. Increased Ach release from cholinergic nerve endings
Ans: (a)

13) Cholinergic drug that acts on heart by decreasing the levels of cAMP and opening of K+ channels-
a. Methacholine
b. Oxotremorine
c. Bethanechol
d. DMPP
Ans: (a)

14) Mechanism of action of fibrates in treatment of hyperlipidemia -

a. Activator of lipoprotein lipase
b. PPAR alpha agonist
c. Decreased synthesis of VLDL
d. Inhibitor of CETP (Cholesteryl ester transfer protein)
Ans: (a)

15) Nicotinic acid -
a. Increases HDL
b. Increased triglyceride synthesis
c. Type II hyperlipoproteinemia
d. Decreased hydrolysis of VLDL
Ans: (a)

16) False about tadalafil-
a. Longest acting phosphodiesterase inhibitor
b. It cannot be used in the treatment of PAH
c. It is used in erectile dysfunction
d. Its half-life is 17· 5 hours
Ans: (b)

17) Drug not acting on P2Y12 receptor is -
a. Ticlopidine
b. Clopidogrel
c. Dipyridamole
d. Prasugrel

Ans: (c)

18) A = ACE inhibitor, B = beta blocker, C = calcium channel blocker, D= diuretics. For elderly with hypertension antihypertensive drug of choice is -

a. A or D
b. A or B
c. A or C
d. C or D
Ans: (d)

19) Mechanism of action of levosimendan -
a. Inoconstrictor
b. Potassium channel opener
c. Sodium channel opener
d. Beta blocker
Ans: (b)

20) Treatment of choice for cheese reaction -
a. Prazosin
b. Pentazocine
c. Phentolamine
d. Phenoxybenzamine
Ans: (c)

21) Antihypertensive that cannot be given in pregnancy -
a. Labetalol
b. Propranolol
c. Esmolol
d. Hydralazine
Ans: (b)

Nervous system

1) A patient with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy has been valproate. Now she is 5 months pregnant. Her USS scan is normal. What will you advise?
a. Change the drug
b. Continue the drug in same dose
c. Decrease the dose of drug
d. Increase the dose of drug

Ans: (b)

2) Antiepileptic drug not associated with enzyme induction or inhibition -

a. Phenytoin
b. Valproate
c. Carbamazepine
d. Ethosuximide
Ans: (d)

3) Not an antiepileptic agent
a. Phenytoin
b. Flunarizine
c. Topiramate
d. Carbamazepine
Ans: (b)

4) Most serious side effect of valproate -

a. Fulminant hepatitis
b. Spina bifida
c. Weight gain
d. Thrombocytopenia
Ans: (a)

5) False about oxcarbazepine -

a. Metabolises itself
b. Less chances of hyponatremia than carbamazepine
c. It is less enzyme inducer than carbamazepine
d. Less chances of hepatotoxicity than carbamazepine
Ans: (b)

6) Antiepileptic drug least secreted in breast milk
a. Ethosuximide
b. Clonazepam
c. Gabapentin
d. Carbamazepine
Ans: (b)

7) Felbamate is used in -
a. Epilepsy
b. Anxiety
c. Social phobia
d. Depression
Ans: (a)

😎 Most effective agent to prevent motion sickness-
a. Ephedrine
b. Nedocromil
c. Cyproheptadine
d. Hyoscine
Ans: (d)

9) Not an antiemetic -
a. Ondansetron
b. Metoclopramide
c. Chlorpromazine
d. Bismuth
Ans: (d)

10) Used in migraine -

a. 5HTl agonist
b. 5HTl antagonist
c. D 1 agonist
d. D I antagonist
Ans: (a)

11) Drug used in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
a. Riluzole
b. Glatiramer
c. Tacrine
d. Olanzapine
Ans: (a)

12) A patient has been on carbidopa + levodopa for 10 years now. Now he has weaning off effect. What should be added to restore action?
a. Tolcapone
b. Amantadine
c. Rasagiline
d. Benzhexol
Ans: (a)

13) Most commonly used cholinesterase regenerator at NM junction is -

a. Pralidoxime
b. Obidxime
c. Diacetyl monoxime
d. Edrophonium
Ans: (a)

14) Rivastigmine is used in -
a. Dementia
b. Dissociation
c. Depression
d. Delusions
Ans: (a)

15) Neostigmine is not used in -
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Cobra bite
c. Atony of bladder
d. Glaucoma
Ans: (d)

16) Dantrolene acts on -
a. Ryanodine receptor
b. Cannabinoid receptor
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Ans: (a)

17) Rotigotine is-
a. Dopamine agonist
b. Dopamine antagonist
c. GABA agonist
d. GABA antagonist
Ans: (a)

18) Varenicline acts by -
a. Partial ni****ne receptor agonist
b. Ni****ne receptor antagonist
c. Both agonist and antagonist at ni****ne receptor
d. None of the above
Ans: (a)

25/08/2020

Finally done ✅

25/08/2020

Important point by (S.E.C)

*Hypersegmented polys : b1d deficiency’s
*Band cell : immmature neutrophil
*Myeloid proliferating: Bactria infacction CML
Giant cell : anaplasia
-Effected of Purkinje cell of cerebellum: hypoxia (HIE)
-Pyramid cell of hippocampus: hypoxia.
*Chronic inflammation: gaint cell ,mononucleosis, macrophage
*Acute inflammation: neutrophil , eosinophils and antibody
*Chromatolysis : axonal injury

09/08/2020

Epithelium>>>Adenoma, papilloma
Blood cells>>> Leukemia, lymphoma
Blood vessels>>> Hemangioma
Smooth muscle>>>Leiomyoma
Connective tissue >>>Fibroma
Bone>>> Osteoma
Fat>>>Lipoma
Melanocyte>>>Nevus/mole
Striated muscles>>> rhabdomyoma

09/08/2020

Important..
Muscle name and location..???
Plz mentioned..

09/08/2020

SpecificOdors

○ Fruity breath odor >>> DKA
○BitterAlmond>>>Cyanide poisoning
○Garlic odor >>> Arsenic ingestion

09/08/2020

Type of allergy reaction
●Type I allergic reactions are IgE-mediated.
●Type II antibody-mediated reactions.
●Type III allergic reactions are immune complex mediated.
●Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by T cells

09/07/2020

* Medical Abbreviations * and terminology

> *Rx* = Treatment
> *Hx* = History
> *Dx* = Diagnosis
> *q* = Every
> *qd* = Every day
> *qod* = Every other day
> *qh* = Every Hour
> *S* = without
> *SS* = One & half
> *C* = With
> *SOS* = If needed
> *AC* = Before Meals
> *PC* = After meals
> *BID* = Twice a Day
> *TID* = Thrice a Day
> *QID* = Four times a day
> *OD* = Once a Day
> *BT* = Bed Time
> *hs* = Bed Time
> *BBF* = Before Breakfast
> *BD* = Before Dinner
> *Tw* = Twice a week
> *SQ* = sub cutaneous
> *IM* = Intramuscular
> *ID* = Intradermal
> *IV* = Intravenous
> *Q4H* = (every 4 hours)
> *QOD* = (every other day)
> *HS* = (at bedtime)
> *PRN* = (as needed)
> *PO or "per os"* (by mouth)
> *Mg* = (milligrams)
> *Mcg/ug* = (micrograms)
> *G or Gm* = (grams)
> *1TSF* (Teaspoon) = 5 ml
> *1 Tablespoonful* =15ml
~ *DDx* =differential Diagnosis
*Tx* =Treatment
*RTx* =Radiotherapy
*CTx* =Chemotherapy
*R/O* =rule out
*s.p* =status post
*PMH(x)* =post medical history
*Px* =Prognosis
*Ix* =Indication
*CIx* =contraindication
*Bx* =biopsy
*Cx* =complication...

*Knowledge About Blood*
1. Which is known as ‘River of Life’?
*Answer: Blood*
2. Blood circulation was discovered by?
*Answer: William Harvey*
3. The total blood volume in an adult?
*Answer: 5-6 Litres*
4. The pH value of Human blood?
*Answer: 7.35-7.45*
5. The normal blood cholesterol level?
*Answer: 150-250 mg/100 ml*
6. The fluid part of blood?
*Answer: Plasma*
7. Plasma protein fibrinogen has an active role in?
*Answer: Clotting of blood*
8. Plasma protein globulins functions as?
*Answer: Antibodies*
9. Plasma proteins maintain the blood pH?
*Answer: Albumins*
10. Biconcave discs shaped blood cell?
*Answer: RBC* (Erythrocytes)
*11. Non nucleated blood cell?*
*Answer: RBC* (Erythrocytes)
12. Respiratory pigments present in RBC?
*Answer: Haemoglobin*
13. Red pigment present in RBC?
*Answer: Haemoglobin*
14. RBC produced in the?
*Answer: Bone marrow*
15. Iron containing pigment of Haemoglobin?
*Answer: Haem*
16. Protein containing pigment of Haemoglobin?
*Answer: Globin*
17. Graveyard of RBC?
*Answer: Spleen*
18. Blood bank in the body?
*Answer: Spleen*
19. Life span of RBC?
*Answer: 120 Days*
20. Total count is measured by an instrument known as?
*Answer: Haemocytometer*
21. A decrease in RBC count is known as?
*Answer: Anemia*
22. An increase in RBC count is known as?
*Answer: Polycythemia*
23. A high concentration of bilirubin in the blood causes?
*Answer: Jaundice*
24. The disease resistant blood cell?
*Answer: WBC (leucocytes)*
25. Which WBC is known as soldiers of the body?
*Answer: Neutrophils*
26. Largest WBC?
*Answer: Monocyes*
27. Smallest WBC?
*Answer: Lymphocytes*
28. Antibodies producing WBC?
*Answer: Lymphocytes*
29. Life span of WBC?
*Answer: 10-15 days*
30. Blood cell performs an important role in blood clotting?
*Answer: Thrombocytes (Platelets)*
31. Vessels is called?
*Answer: Thrombus*
32. Anticoagulant present in Blood?
*Answer: Heparin*
33. A hereditary bleeding disease?
*Answer: Haemophilia*
34. Bleeder’s disease?
*Answer: Haemophilia*
35. Christmas disease?
*Answer: Haemophilia*
36. A type of Anemia with sickle shaped RBC?
*Answer: Sickle cell anemia*
37. Viscosity of Blood?
*Answer: 4.5 to 5.5*
38. Instrument used to measure haemoglobin?
*Answer: Haemoglobinometer*
39. Who demonstrated blood groups?
*Answer: Karl Landsteiner*
40. Who demonstrated Rh factor?
*Answer: Karl Landsteiner*
41. Blood group which is called Universal donor?
*Answer: O*
42. Blood group which is called Universal recipient?
*Answer: AB*
43. Blood group is most common among the Asians?
*Answer: B*

*MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY*

Everybody should know the basic functioning of Human Body and its main parts in order to express and explain their ailment to the Doctor and at the same time one should be able to understand the diagnosis expressed by the Doctor in the medical terminology. For easy recognition of the Compounded Words used in the Medical Terminology for naming the disease, Suffixes are added to Prefixes. For this hereunder giving you a few such prefixes for your ready reference and understanding.

Prefix - Meaning

*1. Adeno* - Glandular
*2. An* - Not
*3. Anti* - Against
*4. Aorto* - Aorta
*5. Artho* - joint
*6. Bleph* - Eyelid
*7. Broncho* - Bronchi
*8. Cardio* - Heart
*9. Cephal* - Head
*10. Cerebro* - Brain
*11. Cervico* - Cervix
*12. Cholecysto* - Gall Bladder
*13. Coli* - Bowel
*14. Colpo* - Va**na
*15. Entero* - Intestine
*16. Gastro* - Stomach
*17. Glosso* - Tongue
*18. Haema* - Blood
*19. Hepa* - Liver
*20. Hystero* - Uterus
*21. Laryngo* - Larynx
*22. Leuco* - White
*23. Metro* - Uterus
*24. Myelo* - Spinal cord
*25. Myo* - Muscle
*26. Nephro* - Kidney
*27. Neuro* - Nerve
*28. Odonto* - Tooth
*29. Orchido* - Te**is
*30. Osteo* - Bone
*31. Oto* - Ear
*32. Pharyngo* - Pharynx
*33. Pio* - Pus
*34. Pneumo* - Lung
*35. Ren* - Kidney
*36. Rhin* - Nose
*37. Spleno* - Spleen
*38. Thyro* - Thyroid Gland
*39. Urethro* - Urethra
*40. Vesico* – Bladder

*Here are the suffixes used in Medical terminology. Check out!Suffix - Meaning*

*1. -aemia* : Blood
*2. -algia* : Pain
*3. -derm* : skin
*4. -dynia* : pain
*5. -ectomy* : removal
*6. -Itis* : inflammation
*7. -lithiasis* : Presence of Stone
*8. -malacia* : softening
*9. -oma* : tumour
*10. -opia* : eye
*11. -osis* : Condition,excess
*12. -otomy* : incision of
*13. -phobia* : fear
*14. -plasty* : surgery
*15. -plegia* : peralysis
*16. -ptosis* : falling
*17. -rhoea* : excessive discharge
*18. -rhage* : to burst forth
*19. -rhythmia* : rhythm.
*20. -stasis* : stoppage of movement
*21. -sthenia* : weakness
*22. -stomy* : outlet
*23. -tomy* : removal
*24. -trophy* : nourishment
*25. -uria* : urine

*Compounded Words - Meaning*

*1. Anaemia* - Deficiency of haemoglobin in the blood
*2. Analgesic* - Medicine which alleviates pain
*3. Arthralgia* - Pain in a joint
*4. Cephalalgia* - Headache
*5. Nephralgia* - Pain in the kidney
*6. Neuralgia* - Nerve pain
*7. Myalgia* - Muscle pain
*8. Otalgia* - Ear ache
*9. Gastralgia* - Pain in the stomach
*10. Pyoderma* - Skin infection with pus formation
*11. Leucoderma* - Defective skin pigmentaion
*12. Hysterodynia* - Pain in the uterus
*13. Hysterectomy* - Excision of the uterus
*14. Nephrectomy* - Excision of a kidney
*15. Adenectomy* - Excision of a gland
*16. Cholecystectomy* - Excision of gall bladder
*17. Thyroidectomy* - Excision of thyroid gland
*18. Arthritis* - Inflammation of a joint
*19. Bronchitis* - Inflammation of the bronchi
*20. Carditis* - Inflammation of the heart
*21. Cervicitis* - Inflammation of the cervix
*22. Colitis* - Inflammation of the colon
*23. Colpitis* - Inflammation of the va**na
*24. Cystitis* - Inflammation of the urinary bladder
*25. Enteritis* - Inflammation of the intestines
*26. Gastritis* - Inflammation of the stomach
*27. Glossitis* - Inflammation of the tongue
*28. Hepatitis* - Inflammation of the liver
*29. Laryngitis* - Inflammation of the larynx
*30. Metritis* - Inflammation of the uterus
*31. Myelitis* - Inflammation of the spinal cord
*32. Nephritis* - Inflammation of the kidney
*33. Pharyngitis* - Inflammation of the pharynx
*34. Blepharitis* - Inflammation of the eyelids
*35. Cholelithiasis* - Stone in the gall bladder
*36. Nephrolithiasis* - Stone in the kidney
*37. Osteomalacia* - Softening of bones through deficiency of calcium or D vitamin
*38. Adenoma* -Benign tumour of glandular tissue
*39. Myoma* - Tumour of muscle
*40. Diplopia* - Double vision
*41. Thrombosis* - Formation of a blood clot
*42. Pyloromyotomy* - Incision of pyloric sphincter muscle
*43. Hedrophobia* - Fear of water(Rabies in humans)
*44. Neuroplasty* - Surgical repair of nerves
*45. Pyloraplasty* - Incision of plastic pylorus to widen passage
*46. Hemiplegia* - Paralysis of one side of the body
*47. Nephroptosis* - Downward displacement of the kidney
*48. Amenorrhoea* - Absence of menstrual discharge
*49. Dysmenorrhoea* - Painful menstruation
*50. Leucorrhoea* - Whitish va**nal discharge
*51. Menorrhoea* - Menstrual bleeding
*52. Haemorrhage* - Escape of blood from a vessel
*53. Arrhythmia* - Any deviation of normal rhythm of heart
*54. Cholestasis* - Diminution in the flow of bile
*55. Haemostatis* - Arrest of bleeding
*56. Neurasthenia* - Nervous debility
*57. Cystostomy - Surgical openingmade into the bladder
*58. Cystotomy* - Incision inHypertrophy* -Increase in the size of tissues
*60. Haematuria* - Blood in theurin
*61. Glycosuria* - Presence of sugar.
Copied

06/07/2020

How many bones are present in your skull ________? ?

1.22
2.24
3.26
4.none. ..

06/07/2020

27/06/2020

MOST COMMON ..point

MC cause of Cell injury: Hypoxia
MC cause of Hypoxia: Ischemia
MC cause of Inflammation: Infection
MC cause of Impaired Wound Healing: Infection
MC cause of Acute Cor Pulmonale Pulmonary: Embolism
MC cause of Chronic Cor Pulmonale: COPD
MC cause of Superior Vena Caval Syndrome: Small Cell Carcinoma of Lung Compression
MC cause of Infection in Cystic fibrosis in Children: Staphylococcus aureus
MC cause of Infection in Cystic Fibrosis in adolescents and adults: Pseudomonas aeroginosa
MC cause of Seizure in Newborn: Hypoxia induced Ischemic Encephalopathy
MC cause of Epiglottitis in Children: Hemophilus influenza b
MC Lesion of Diabetic Retinopathy: Diffuse Glomerulosclerosis
MC Lesion in Asbestosis: Benign Pleural Plaques
MC Benign Lesion of Liver: Cavernous Hemangioma
MC Intracranial Lesion after Head Injury: Subdural Hemorrhage
MC cranial Nerve involved in Glomus tumour: Facial Nerve
MC Nerve palsy in Diabetic Retinopathy: Occulomotor
MC Nerve for Peripheral stimulation (Supramaximal Stimulation): Ulnar Nerve (Volar side of Wrist)
MC Nerve involved in Leprosy: 1st Posterior Tibial Nerve 2nd Ulnar Nerve
MC Nerve leading to Abscess: Ulnar Nerve
MC Nerve injured in anterior dislocation of shoulder: Circumflex branch of axillary nerve
MC Nerve injured in Fracture neck of Humerus: Axillary nerve
MC Nerve injured in Lunate Dislocation: Median Nerve
MC Nerve injured in Fracture medial epicondyle of Humerus: Ulnar nerve
MC Nerve injured in Supracondylar fracture of Humerus: 1st Anterior Interosseous Nerve 2nd Median Nerve 3rd Radial Nerve
MC Nerve injured in Forearm fractures especially Monteggia fracture: Posterior interosseous Nerve
MC Nerve involved in Perilunate dislocation: Median Nerve
MC Nerve injured in Posterior Dislocation of Hip: Sciatic nerve
MC Nerve injured in McBurney’s Incision: Iliohypogastric Nerve
MC Nerve involved in Thoracic outlet Syndrome: Ulnar Nerve
MC Nerve affected by Plexiform Neurofibroma: Trigeminal Nerve
MC Nerve injury in Postpartum Female: Common Peroneal Nerve
MC Route of Lead Intoxication: Inhalation
MC Occupational Cancer: Skin(Squamous cell carcinoma)
MC Mental Disorder causing death: Alzheimer’s and Other Dementia
MC Infection of Streptococcus pneumonia: Otitis Media
MC Gram Positive organism causing meningitis: Streptococcus pneumonia
MC Gram Negative organism causing meningitis: Neisseria meningitides
MC Source of Meningococcal meningitides: Carrier
MC Legionella causing Human disease: Legionella Pneumophilia
MC Diagnostic test in Lymphogranulorum venerum: Cell Culture
MC Infection Complicating Organ Transplantation: CMV
MC Ge***al Lesion in HIV patient: Herpes
MC organ affected in Amoebic Colitis: Caecum
MC organ affected in Visceral Leishmaniasis: Spleen
MC Diagnostic specimen for Visceral Leishmaniasis: Spleen
MC Parasitic Infection of CNS: Cysticercosis
MC Congenital Lesion complicated by Infective Endocarditis: VSD
MC association of Right sided aortic arch Tetrology of Fallot
MC condition associated with Coarctation of Aorta: Bicuspid Aortic Valve
MC Rheumatic Valvular Disease: Mitral Regurgitation
MC Renal Vein Thrombosis seen in Membranous Glomerulonephritis
MC Ectopic Ureter associated with: Dysuria
MC Symptomatic CNS infection in Neonates Rubella,HSV
MC Virus causing Diarrhoea in Infants: Rota Virus
MC Biochemical abnormality in Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis: Hypokalemic Hypochloremic Metabolic alkalosis with Paradoxical aciduria
MC Carcinoma of Breast: Intraductal Carcinoma
MC cells damaged during Hypoxia: Neurons
MC Thyroid carcinoma: Papillary
MC Thyroid carcinoma after radiation Papillary
MC etilogical agent for Lung Abscess: Anaerobic bacteria
MC Chronic Occupational disease in world: Silicosis
MC Renal Stones: Calcium Oxalate
MC CNS Herniation: Transtentorial Herniation
MC Demyelinating Disease: Multiple Sclerosis
MC mutated gene in Human cancer: P53
MC mutation in Hereditary Spherocytosis: Ankyrin
MC mutation in Hereditary Elliptocytosis: Spectrin
MC Congenitally absent muscle in Humans: Pectoralis Major
MC weakened muscle in Osteoarthritis: Quadriceps
MC fractured bone in carpus: Scaphoid
MC Injured organ in Blunt injury abdomen: Spleen
MC Hereditary blood coagulation disorder: Factor V Leiden
MC virus associated with Transfusion Hepatitis: HCV
MC Source of Hemorrhage in Duodenal Ulcer (Arterial): Gastroduodenal Artery
MC Lobe involved in Carcinoma Prostate: Posterior Lobe
MC Zone involved in Carcinoma Prostate: Peripheral Zone
MC Node involved in Ca Prostate Metastasis: Obturator Node
MC Congenital Deformity of Urethra: Hypospadiasis
MC Cancer in Burn Scar: Squamous Cell Carcinoma
MC Origin of Melanoma: Junctional Melanocytes
MC Clinical Pattern of Basal cell carcinoma: Nodular
MC Infection in Dry Wound in Burns: Pseudomonas
MC side of Unilateral Cleft Lip: Left
MC Salivary Gland to get Stones: Submandibular Gland
MC Type of Inflammation: Catarrhal
MC Type of Hemoglobinopathy in World: Thalassemia
MC Type of mutation causing β-Thalassemia: Splicing mutation
MC type of AML: M2
MC type of AML in Down’s Syndrome: M7
MC Type of Ca P***s: Squamous Cell Carcinoma
MC Type of Malignant Melanoma: Superficial Spreading Type
MC cause of Acute Adrenocortical Insufficiency: Abrupt withdrawal of Corticosteroids
MC cause of SIADH: Ectopic ADH by Small Cell Cancer
MC cause of Hyperaldosteronism: Conn’s Syndrome (Adrenocortical Adenoma-Left sided MC)
MC cause of Thyrotoxicosis: Grave’s Disease
MC cause of Hypothyroidism in Iodine Sufficient areas of the world: Autoimmune Hypothyroidism (Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis)
MC cause of Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Parathyroid Adenoma
MC cause of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism: Renal Failure
MC cause of Hypoparathyroidism: Surgical Removal of Parathyroid Gland
MC cause of Panhypopituitarism: Pituitary adenoma
MC cause of Cushing’s Syndrome: Administration of Exogenous Corticosteroids
MC cause of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia: 21α Hydroxylase Deficiency
MC cause of Right Heart Failure: Left Heart Failure
MC cause of Ascending Aorta Aneurysm: Hypertension
MC cause of Secondary Raynaud Phenomenon: Systemic Sclerosis
MC cause of Acute bacterial Endocarditis: Staphylococcus aureus
MC cause of Subacute Endocarditis: α Hemolytic Streptococci(Viridans)
MC cause of Prosthetic Valve Endocarditis: Staphylococcus epidermidis(Coagulase negative
MC cause of endocarditis in IV drug users: Staphylococcus aureus
MC cause of Bleeding during Tonsillectomy: Paratonsillar Vein
MC cause of arterial bleeding during Tonsillectomy: Tonsillar Branch of Facial Artery
MC cause of Left Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Palsy: Ca Bronchus
MC cause of Right Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Palsy: Thyroid Surgery
MC bacterial cause of Pustule: Streptococcus pyogenes
MC cause of Cellulitis: Streptococcus pyogenes
MC cause of Lobar Pneumonia: Streptococcus pnemoniae
MC cause of Bronchopneumonia: Staphylococcus aureus
MC cause of Otitis Media: Streptococcus pneumonia
MC cause of Septicaemia in Asplenic patient: Streptococcus pneumonia
MC cause of gas gangrene: Clostridium perfringens(A type)
MC cause of actinomycosis: Actinomyces Israeli
MC cause of mycetoma: Fungi
MC cause of UTI: E.coli
MC cause of Catheter associated UTI: E.coli
MC cause of Intraabdominal Abscess: E.coli
MC cause of Acute Bacterial Peritonitis: 1st E.coli 2nd Klebsiella
MC cause of Salmonella gastroenteritis: Salmonella typhimurum
MC bacterial cause of Traveller’s Diarrhoea: ETEC
MC viral cause of Traveller’s Diarrhoea: Rota virus
MC parasitic cause of Traveller’s Diarrhoea: Giardia
MC cause of Pyrexia of Unknown Origin: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
MC cause of Blood stained ni**le discharge: Intraductal Papilloma
MC cause of Adenomatoid cancer: Follicular Carcinoma
MC cause of Thyroiditis: Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
MC cause of Esophagitis: Esophageal Reflux
MC cause of Esophageal Perforation: Instrumentation