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40 MCQs on Metals and Non-Metals for NEET preparation, aligned with NCERT Class 12 chemistry syllabus and previous patterns.



Metals and Non-Metals – NEET MCQs

1. Which alkali metal is the strongest reducing agent in aqueous solution?
a) Li
b) Na
c) K
d) Cs
2. Beryl (Be₃Al₂Si₆O₁₈) is an ore of:
a) Boron
b) Barium
c) Beryllium
d) Bismuth
3. The process of converting hydrated alumina into anhydrous alumina is called:
a) Roasting
b) Smelting
c) Calcination
d) Leaching
4. Which of the following metals is not extracted by carbon reduction?
a) Fe
b) Zn
c) Al
d) Pb
5. In the extraction of copper from sulphide ore, the method used for concentration is:
a) Gravity separation
b) Magnetic separation
c) Froth flotation
d) Leaching
6. Which metal forms an amalgam with mercury?
a) Aluminium
b) Iron
c) Sodium
d) Gold
7. Which of the following is an example of pyrometallurgy?
a) Extraction of gold by cyanide process
b) Extraction of aluminium by Hall-Héroult process
c) Refining of nickel by Mond’s process
d) All of the above
8. Liquation method is used for the purification of:
a) Sn
b) Al
c) Fe
d) Cu
9. Which of the following is not a mineral acid?
a) H₃BO₃
b) H₂CO₃
c) HCl
d) H₂SO₄
10. The oxidation state of iron in Prussian blue (Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃) is:
a) +2 and +3
b) Only +2
c) Only +3
d) +2 and +4
11. The gas evolved when copper reacts with concentrated nitric acid is:
a) NO
b) N₂O
c) NO₂
d) N₂
12. Which compound is known as 'inorganic benzene'?
a) Borax
b) Boron nitride
c) Borazine
d) Diborane
13. In the thermite process, the reducing agent is:
a) Carbon
b) Aluminium
c) Sodium
d) Hydrogen
14. The tendency of an element to form chains of identical atoms is called:
a) Allotropy
b) Catenation
c) Isomerism
d) Polymerization
15. Which allotropic form of carbon is a good conductor of electricity?
a) Diamond
b) Graphite
c) Fullerenes
d) Charcoal
16. Which noble gas is used in balloons and airships because of its non-flammability?
a) Helium
b) Neon
c) Argon
d) Krypton
17. Aqua regia is a mixture of:
a) HCl and HNO₃ in 3:1 ratio
b) H₂SO₄ and HCl in 1:3 ratio
c) HNO₃ and H₂SO₄ in 1:3 ratio
d) HCl and H₂SO₄ in 3:1 ratio
18. Which of the following is a basic oxide?
a) CO₂
b) SO₂
c) MgO
d) Al₂O₃
19. The oxidation number of oxygen in KO₂ is:
a) –2
b) –1
c) –1/2
d) –1/3
20. Silicon is a:
a) Metalloid
b) Non-metal
c) Metal
d) Halogen
21. Which gas is produced when calcium carbide reacts with water?
a) Methane
b) Ethylene
c) Acetylene
d) Ethane
22. Which of the following metals does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid?
a) Zinc
b) Magnesium
c) Copper
d) Aluminium
23. Duralumin is an alloy of:
a) Cu and Zn
b) Al, Cu, Mg, Mn
c) Fe, Cr, Ni
d) Pb and Sn
24. Which of the following is a correct pair of metal and its chief ore?
a) Aluminium: Bauxite
b) Copper: Malachite
c) Zinc: Zinc blende
d) All of these
25. The process of converting sulphide ore into oxide by heating strongly in presence of air is:
a) Calcination
b) Roasting
c) Smelting
d) Refining
26. Which of the following is used as a reducing agent in extraction of chromium from chromite ore?
a) Carbon
b) Aluminium
c) Sodium
d) Magnesium
27. Boron shows diagonal relationship with:
a) Silicon
b) Aluminium
c) Carbon
d) Beryllium
28. The chief impurity in bauxite is:
a) SiO₂
b) Fe₂O₃
c) CuO
d) ZnO
29. Sodium is stored under:
a) Water
b) Alcohol
c) Kerosene
d) Ammonia
30. Which metal is used in the manufacture of safety matches?
a) Phosphorus
b) Potassium chlorate
c) Sulphur
d) Antimony trisulphide
31. Which of the following hydrides is electron-deficient?
a) NH₃
b) H₂O
c) CH₄
d) B₂H₆
32. Which noble gas forms maximum number of compounds?
a) Helium
b) Neon
c) Xenon
d) Argon
33. Gangue is:
a) Ore with high metal content
b) Unwanted impurities in ore
c) Metal extracted from ore
d) Flue gases produced during roasting
34. The alkali metal that does not form a superoxide is:
a) K
b) Rb
c) Cs
d) Li
35. Which of the following is the correct order of reducing power of alkali metals?
a) Li > Na > K > Rb
b) Na > Li > K > Rb
c) K > Rb > Na > Li
d) Rb > Cs > K > Na
36. Which metal is extracted by electrolysis of its molten chloride?
a) Fe
b) Cu
c) Na
d) Ag
37. In the blast furnace, the reducing agent for iron oxide is mainly:
a) CO
b) C
c) H₂
d) CO₂
38. Which among the following oxides is amphoteric?
a) CaO
b) SiO₂
c) Al₂O₃
d) Na₂O
39. Which metal is protected by a layer of its own oxide?
a) Sodium
b) Aluminium
c) Copper
d) Silver
40. The shape of XeF₄ molecule is:
a) Tetrahedral
b) Square planar
c) Octahedral
d) Pyramidal

---

Answer Key

1. a) Li
2. c) Beryllium
3. c) Calcination
4. c) Al
5. c) Froth flotation
6. d) Gold
7. d) All of the above
8. a) Sn
9. b) H₂CO₃
10. a) +2 and +3
11. c) NO₂
12. c) Borazine
13. b) Aluminium
14. b) Catenation
15. b) Graphite
16. a) Helium
17. a) HCl and HNO₃ in 3:1 ratio
18. c) MgO
19. c) –1/2
20. a) Metalloid
21. c) Acetylene
22. c) Copper
23. b) Al, Cu, Mg, Mn
24. d) All of these
25. b) Roasting
26. b) Aluminium
27. a) Silicon
28. b) Fe₂O₃
29. c) Kerosene
30. d) Antimony trisulphide
31. d) B₂H₆
32. c) Xenon
33. b) Unwanted impurities in ore
34. d) Li
35. a) Li > Na > K > Rb
36. c) Na
37. a) CO
38. c) Al₂O₃
39. b) Aluminium
40. b) Square planar

40 original, MCQs on Chemical Bonding for NEET 12th Class preparation, framed to match the latest pattern and conceptual depth required.



Chemical Bonding – NEET MCQs

1. Which of the following molecules has a bond angle of exactly 120°?
a) NH₃
b) H₂O
c) BF₃
d) CH₄
2. The bond order in O₂²⁻ (peroxide ion) is:
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 2
d) 2.5
3. Among the following, the molecule with the highest dipole moment is:
a) CO₂
b) CCl₄
c) CHCl₃
d) BF₃
4. The hybridization of the central atom in XeF₄ is:
a) sp³
b) sp³d
c) sp³d²
d) sp²
5. Which of the following compounds exhibits both ionic and covalent bonding?
a) KCl
b) CaCl₂
c) NH₄Cl
d) CH₄
6. In which molecule is the central atom sp hybridized?
a) H₂O
b) NH₃
c) BeCl₂
d) BCl₃
7. The shape of ClF₃ according to VSEPR theory is:
a) Trigonal planar
b) T-shaped
c) Bent
d) Square planar
8. Which of the following has the shortest C–O bond length?
a) CO₃²⁻
b) CH₃OH
c) CO
d) HCOOH
9. Which one is a correct order of bond strength?
a) O₂⁺ > O₂ > O₂⁻
b) O₂⁻ > O₂ > O₂⁺
c) O₂ > O₂⁺ > O₂⁻
d) O₂⁺ > O₂⁻ > O₂
10. The total number of σ and π bonds in CH₂=C=CH₂ is:
a) 6 σ, 2 π
b) 7 σ, 2 π
c) 6 σ, 3 π
d) 8 σ, 2 π
11. Which molecule has a zero dipole moment?
a) NF₃
b) H₂O
c) SO₂
d) CO₂
12. Among B₂, C₂, N₂, O₂, the species with the highest bond order is:
a) B₂
b) C₂
c) N₂
d) O₂
13. The bond angle in H₂S is smaller than that in H₂O due to:
a) Higher electronegativity of S
b) Smaller size of S
c) Larger size of S and lower electronegativity
d) Hydrogen bonding in H₂S
14. Which of the following has a coordinate bond?
a) O₃
b) SO₃
c) HNO₃
d) All of these
15. The paramagnetic species among the following is:
a) N₂
b) O₂⁻
c) CO
d) CN⁻
16. Which of the following violates the octet rule?
a) PCl₅
b) CF₄
c) NH₃
d) H₂O
17. In which of the following molecules is the π-bond formed by lateral overlap of p-orbitals?
a) C₂H₄
b) C₂H₂
c) Both a and b
d) CH₄
18. The number of lone pairs in XeF₆ is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
19. Which molecule has a trigonal bipyramidal shape?
a) SF₄
b) BrF₅
c) PCl₅
d) XeF₄
20. The bond length order in the halogens is:
a) F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂
b) I₂ > Br₂ > Cl₂ > F₂
c) Cl₂ > Br₂ > F₂ > I₂
d) Br₂ > I₂ > Cl₂ > F₂
21. Among the following, the molecule with sp³d hybridization and linear shape is:
a) XeF₂
b) I₃⁻
c) Both a and b
d) SF₄
22. Which compound does NOT show resonance?
a) Benzene
b) Ozone
c) Carbonate ion
d) Ethane
23. The bond order of CO molecule is:
a) 2
b) 2.5
c) 3
d) 1.5
24. The correct order of increasing C–O bond length is:
a) CO < CO₃²⁻ < CH₃OH
b) CO₃²⁻ < CH₃OH < CO
c) CH₃OH < CO₃²⁻ < CO
d) CO < CH₃OH < CO₃²⁻
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding H-bonding?
a) It is stronger than a covalent bond
b) It influences boiling point and solubility
c) It is present in all molecules containing H
d) It does not affect physical properties
26. The species having triangular planar shape is:
a) NO₃⁻
b) SO₃
c) Both a and b
d) NH₃
27. Which one has the highest lattice energy?
a) NaCl
b) MgO
c) KCl
d) CaO
28. The geometry and hybridization of [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ are:
a) Tetrahedral, sp³
b) Square planar, dsp²
c) Octahedral, sp³d²
d) Linear, sp
29. The dipole moment of CH₄ is zero because:
a) It has no polar bonds
b) The C–H bonds are nonpolar
c) The molecule is symmetrical
d) Carbon is electronegative
30. In NO₂, the number of σ bonds and lone pairs on nitrogen are:
a) 2 σ, 1 lone pair
b) 2 σ, 2 lone pairs
c) 3 σ, 0 lone pairs
d) 1 σ, 2 lone pairs
31. The species with three centre-two electron bond (3c-2e) is:
a) B₂H₆
b) C₂H₆
c) Al₂Cl₆
d) N₂O
32. Which of the following is linear?
a) ClO₂⁻
b) I₃⁺
c) SO₂
d) NO₂⁺
33. Which property decreases with increasing bond order?
a) Bond strength
b) Bond length
c) Stability
d) Bond energy
34. The shape of SF₄ is:
a) Tetrahedral
b) See-saw
c) Square planar
d) Trigonal bipyramidal
35. The number of π bonds in N₂O is:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
36. Which molecule is polar?
a) SF₆
b) SiF₄
c) XeF₄
d) SF₄
37. The bond order in He₂⁺ is:
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) 1.5
38. In the oxyacid HClO₄, the number of σ and π bonds are respectively:
a) 7, 2
b) 6, 2
c) 5, 3
d) 4, 4
39. The molecule that has a permanent dipole moment among the following is:
a) cis-1,2-dichloroethene
b) trans-1,2-dichloroethene
c) 1,1-dichloroethene
d) Both a and c
40. The correct increasing order of bond angles is:
a) NH₃ < PH₃ < AsH₃
b) AsH₃ < PH₃ < NH₃
c) PH₃ < AsH₃ < NH₃
d) NH₃ < AsH₃ < PH₃

Answer Key

1. c) BF₃
2. a) 1
3. c) CHCl₃
4. c) sp³d²
5. c) NH₄Cl
6. c) BeCl₂
7. b) T-shaped
8. c) CO
9. a) O₂⁺ > O₂ > O₂⁻
10. a) 6 σ, 2 π
11. d) CO₂
12. c) N₂
13. c) Larger size of S and lower electronegativity
14. d) All of these
15. b) O₂⁻
16. a) PCl₅
17. c) Both a and b
18. b) 1
19. c) PCl₅
20. b) I₂ > Br₂ > Cl₂ > F₂
21. c) Both a and b
22. d) Ethane
23. c) 3
24. d) CO < CH₃OH < CO₃²⁻
25. b) It influences boiling point and solubility
26. c) Both a and b
27. b) MgO
28. b) Square planar, dsp²
29. c) The molecule is symmetrical
30. a) 2 σ, 1 lone pair
31. a) B₂H₆
32. d) NO₂⁺
33. b) Bond length
34. b) See-saw
35. b) 2
36. d) SF₄
37. b) 0.5
38. a) 7, 2
39. d) Both a and c
40. b) AsH₃ < PH₃ < NH₃

50 original Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on the chapter "Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants" (Class 12th) tailored for the NEET level. The answers are provided at the end.

***y

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants -
MCQs for NEET

1. The innermost layer of the anther wall that nourishes the developing pollen grains is:
a) Epidermis
b) Endothecium
c) Tapetum
d) Middle layers

2. In a mature dicot embryo, the portion of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is called:
a) Hypocotyl
b) Epicotyl
c) Radicle
d) Plumule

3. Which of the following pollinating agents is correctly matched with the floral characteristic?
a) Wind - Large, colorful petals
b) Water - Light and non-sticky pollen
c) Insect - Nectar and fragrance
d) Bird - Small, inconspicuous flowers

4. Cleistogamous flowers are:
a) Cross-pollinated
b) Self-pollinated and never open
c) Wind-pollinated
d) Always unisexual

5. The function of the filiform apparatus in the synergids is to:
a) Protect the egg cell
b) Guide the pollen tube into the embryo sac
c) Form the secondary nucleus
d) Store food reserves

6. After double fertilization in angiosperms, the central cell becomes:
a) Zygote
b) Endosperm
c) Embryo
d) Seed coat

7. Geitonogamy involves:
a) Transfer of pollen to stigma of another flower on a different plant
b) Transfer of pollen to stigma of the same flower
c) Transfer of pollen to stigma of another flower on the same plant
d) Fusion of gametes from the same parent

8. Which cell of the male gametophyte (pollen grain) divides to form two male gametes?
a) Generative cell
b) Vegetative cell
c) Tube cell
d) Microspore mother cell

9. In an angiospermic ovule, the haploid structure formed after meiosis of the megaspore mother cell is:
a) Female gametophyte
b) Megaspore tetrad
c) Functional megaspore
d) Nucellus

10. The phenomenon wherein pollen of one species germinates on the stigma of another species but fails to fertilize is an example of:
a) Self-incompatibility
b) Interspecific incompatibility
c) Male sterility
d) Dichogamy

11. The part of the seed that develops from the integuments of the ovule is:
a) Endosperm
b) Embryo
c) Testa (Seed coat)
d) Hilum

12. In the embryos of grass family (monocots), the shield-shaped cotyledon is called:
a) Coleoptile
b) Coleorhiza
c) Scutellum
d) Epicotyl

13. What is the ploidy level of the cells of the aleurone layer in maize?
a) Haploid (n)
b) Diploid (2n)
c) Triploid (3n)
d) Polyploid

14. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of wind-pollinated flowers?
a) Feathery stigma
b) Light and non-sticky pollen
c) Large, showy petals
d) Exserted anthers

15. The female gametophyte (embryo sac) of a typical angiosperm is:
a) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
b) 7-nucleate and 7-celled
c) 8-nucleate and 8-celled
d) 7-nucleate and 8-celled

16. Parthenocarpy results in the development of:
a) Seedless fruits without fertilization
b) Fruits with viable seeds
c) Multiple embryos in a seed
d) Seeds without fertilization

17. The nutrient layer of the anther wall that secretes the enzyme callase to dissolve callose binding the microspores is:
a) Endothecium
b) Epidermis
c) Tapetum
d) Connective

18. The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) is formed by the fusion of:
a) Two polar nuclei
b) One male gamete with the egg cell
c) One male gamete with two polar nuclei
d) Two synergid cells

19. Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of stages in the development of a male gametophyte?
a) Microsporocyte → Microspore → Pollen grain → Male gametes
b) PMC → Microspore tetrad → Generative cell → Male gametes
c) Pollen grain → Mitosis → Vegetative and Generative cell → Male gametes
d) Microspore → Mitosis → Pollen grain → Tube cell

20. In a typical anatropous ovule, the micropyle is located:
a) At the base, near the funiculus
b) At the apex, opposite the funiculus
c) At the apex, aligned with the funiculus
d) Laterally on the ovule

21. An example of a persistent perisperm in the seed is seen in:
a) Pea
b) Groundnut
c) Black pepper
d) Castor

22. Xenogamy leads to:
a) Inbreeding depression
b) Increased genetic diversity
c) Homozygosity
d) Cleistogamy

23. The cells of the nucellus are:
a) Haploid
b) Diploid
c) Triploid
d) Polyploid

24. When the pollen tube enters the embryo sac through the micropyle, it is termed:
a) Porogamy
b) Chalazogamy
c) Mesogamy
d) Syngamy

25. The pollen grain cytoplasm surrounding the generative cell is part of the:
a) Male gamete
b) Vegetative cell
c) Intine
d) Exine

26. The phenomenon where the pollen grains are prevented from germinating on the stigma of the same flower is:
a) Heterostyly
b) Herkogamy
c) Self-incompatibility
d) Dichogamy

27. In albuminous seeds, food is stored in:
a) Cotyledons only
b) Endosperm only
c) Both endosperm and cotyledons
d) Perisperm

28. Which of the following is an example of a seed with residual endosperm?
a) Pea
b) Bean
c) Castor
d) Orchid

29. The embryonic root in a developing seedling is called:
a) Plumule
b) Radicle
c) Coleoptile
d) Hypocotyl

30. Outbreeding devices in flowering plants do NOT include:
a) Production of unisexual flowers
b) Self-pollination
c) Heterostyly
d) Protandry

31. The arrangement of the ovules on the placenta within the o***y is called:
a) Placentation
b) Pollination
c) Fertilization
d) Embryogeny

32. The haploid nucleus of the functional megaspore undergoes mitotic divisions to form the embryo sac. This type of development is:
a) Monosporic (Polygonum type)
b) Bisporic
c) Tetrasporic
d) Apomictic

33. Pollen tablets are used as:
a) Contraceptives
b) Food supplements for athletes
c) To assess pollution levels
d) As a source of antibiotics

34. The layer of cells in the anther wall that helps in dehiscence by its hygroscopic nature is:
a) Tapetum
b) Endothecium
c) Epidermis
d) Middle layers

35. If the diploid chromosome number of a flowering plant is 24, what will be the chromosome number in its endosperm?
a) 12
b) 24
c) 36
d) 48

36. The part of the flower that becomes the fruit after fertilization is:
a) O***y
b) Ovule
c) Petal
d) Stigma

37. Which of the following statements about the tapetum is incorrect?
a) It is the innermost layer of the anther wall.
b) It nourishes the developing pollen grains.
c) Its cells are multinucleate.
d) It helps in the dehiscence of the anther.

38. Pollen grains can be stored for years in:
a) Hot and humid conditions
b) Liquid nitrogen at -196°C
c) Ordinary refrigerator
d) Direct sunlight

39. A dicotyledonous seed that shows epigeal germination is:
a) Pea
b) Maize
c) Castor
d) Gram

40. The fusion of a male gamete with the secondary nucleus (polar nuclei) to form the triploid primary endosperm nucleus is called:
a) Syngamy
b) Triple fusion
c) Fertilization
d) Karyogamy

41. In which type of pollination would you expect the highest degree of genetic recombination?
a) Autogamy
b) Geitonogamy
c) Xenogamy
d) Cleistogamy

42. The process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma is called:
a) Fertilization
b) Syngamy
c) Pollination
d) Embryogenesis

43. The hilum of the seed represents:
a) The point of attachment of the ovule to the placenta
b) The opening through which the pollen tube enters
c) The stored food material
d) The future root of the embryo

44. Which of the following is NOT a component of a typical pollen grain at the time of shedding in many angiosperms?
a) Vegetative cell
b) Generative cell
c) Two male gametes
d) A thick, sculptured exine

45. Apomixis is a form of reproduction that results in:
a) Production of seeds without fertilization
b) Production of fruits without seeds
c) Cross-pollination
d) Formation of more than one embryo

46. The anther is bilobed, with each lobe having two theca. This type of anther is:
a) Monothecous
b) Dithecous
c) Tetrasporangiate
d) Bisporangiate

47. The remains of the nucellus in a mature seed is called:
a) Perisperm
b) Endosperm
c) Tegmen
d) Testa

48. A plant with both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers is:
a) Oxalis
b) Viola
c) Commelina
d) Both (b) and (c)

49. The pollen grain's inner wall layer, made of cellulose and pectin, is called:
a) Exine
b) Intine
c) Sporopollenin
d) Callose

50. The condition where the style and stamens are of different lengths in flowers of the same species to promote cross-pollination is:
a) Dichogamy
b) Heterostyly
c) Herkogamy
d) Protogyny**

---

Answers

1. c) Tapetum
2. b) Epicotyl
3. c) Insect - Nectar and fragrance
4. b) Self-pollinated and never open
5. b) Guide the pollen tube into the embryo sac
6. b) Endosperm
7. c) Transfer of pollen to stigma of another flower on the same plant
8. a) Generative cell
9. c) Functional megaspore
10. b) Interspecific incompatibility
11. c) Testa (Seed coat)
12. c) Scutellum
13. c) Triploid (3n)
14. c) Large, showy petals
15. a) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
16. a) Seedless fruits without fertilization
17. c) Tapetum
18. c) One male gamete with two polar nuclei
19. c) Pollen grain → Mitosis → Vegetative and Generative cell → Male gametes
20. c) At the apex, aligned with the funiculus
21. c) Black pepper
22. b) Increased genetic diversity
23. b) Diploid
24. a) Porogamy
25. b) Vegetative cell
26. c) Self-incompatibility
27. b) Endosperm only
28. c) Castor
29. b) Radicle
30. b) Self-pollination
31. a) Placentation
32. a) Monosporic (Polygonum type)
33. b) Food supplements for athletes
34. b) Endothecium
35. c) 36
36. a) O***y
37. d) It helps in the dehiscence of the anther.
38. b) Liquid nitrogen at -196°C
39. c) Castor
40. b) Triple fusion
41. c) Xenogamy
42. c) Pollination
43. a) The point of attachment of the ovule to the placenta
44. c) Two male gametes (In over 60% of angiosperms, pollen is shed at the 2-celled stage)
45. a) Production of seeds without fertilization
46. b) Dithecous
47. a) Perisperm
48. d) Both (b) and (c) (Viola and Commelina)
49. b) Intine
50. b) Heterostyly

Good luck with your NEET preparation!

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