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20/02/2013

Next Question:

Q-16 A 53-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after presenting to the emergency department complaining of fever, chills, abdominal pain and swelling, and diarrhea. Bacterial peritonitis is diagnosed, though no specific
etiology is yet identified. His history is significant for epilepsy, depression, eczema, and a remote appendectomy. He was diagnosed with epilepsy ten years ago after having three seizures in close succession and has not experienced any seizures since being placed on phenytoin. He uses no other medications at this time. He no longer drinks alcohol and has never smoked to***co or use recreational drugs. Despite continuous intravenous fluid hydration, his blood pressure begins to decline. Within hours of admission, his blood pressure reaches 88/64 mm Hg, his pulse rises to 132/min, and he is transferred to the intensive care unit. Blood and peritoneal fluid cultures are pending. Laboratory evaluation reveals the following:

Serum chemistry
Sodium 144 mEq/L
Potassium 3.7 mEq/L
BUN 22 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
CBC
Hb 15.8 g/dL
MCV 96 fl
Platelet count 367,000/cmm
Leukocyte count 23,400/cmm
Given the circumstances which antibiotic is contraindicated in the treatment of this patient?
A. Doxycycline
B. Gentamicin
C. Imipenem
D. Tobramycin
E. Vancomycin

23/01/2013

Next Question:

Q-15: A 73-year-old male presents to the clinic with 3 months of increasing back pain. He localizes the pain to the lumbar spine and states that the pain is worst at night while he is lying in bed. It is improved during the day with mobilization. Past history is notable only for hypertension and remote cigarette smoking. Physical examination is normal. Laboratory studies are notable for an elevated alkaline phosphatase. A lumbar radiogram shows a lytic lesion in the L3 vertebra. Which of the following malignancies is most likely?
A. Gastric carcinoma
B. Non-small cell lung cancer
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Pancreatic carcinoma
E. Thyroid carcinoma

23/01/2013

Answer to the Q-14 with Explanation:

The correct answer is D. Phenytoin toxicity, as with toxicity of many antiepileptic medications, can lead to nystagmus, diplopia, lethargy, and ataxia. It can also lead to tubulointerstitial nephritis, which can cause a sharp increase in creatinine levels.

Answer A is incorrect. Clozapine is an antipsychotic that possesses extrapyramidal and anti-cholinergic adverse effects.

Answer B is incorrect. Imipramine is a tricy- clic antidepressant that can lead to the “3 C’s”: Convulsion, Coma, and Cardiotoxicity.

Answer C is incorrect. Lithium toxicity pres- ents with tremor, polyuria, slurred speech, and poor coordination.
Answer E is incorrect. Sumatriptan is a 5-HT1 agonist used to treat migraines. Sumatriptan toxicity can present with chest discomfort and tingling.

Answer F is incorrect. Valproate, an antiepileptic that works primarily by increasing GABA in the central nervous system, can cause nystagmus. Although it does not cause nephritis, valproate has been known to disrupt the urea cycle, leading to hyperammonemia and cere- bral edema. Other adverse effects include rare but severe hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, and alopecia. Valproate can increase phenytoin levels by inhibiting CYP450 metabolism.

22/01/2013

Next Question:

A 34-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of a 2-day history of fatigue and double vision. Physical examination shows a right nystagmus. A detailed history reveals that he recently began treatment for re- current tonic-clonic seizures. Laboratory studies show:
Na+: 143 mEq/L
K+: 4.5 mEq/L
Cl-: 103 mEq/L
HCO3-: 26 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen: 45 mg/dL Creatinine: 4.3 mg/dL
Which of the following agents is most likely responsible for this patient’s condition?
(A) Clozapine
(B) Imipramine
(C) Lithium
(D) Phenytoin
(E) Sumatriptan
(F) Valproic acid

22/01/2013

Answer to the Q-13 with Explanation:

The correct answer is A. Actinomyces israelii is a microaerophilic organism that causes oral and facial abscesses, with characteristic “sulfur granules” that may drain through sinus tracts in skin.

Answer B is incorrect. Actinomyces’ long branched filaments can resemble fungi, such as Candida albicans. The oral lesions caused by Candida, known as thrush, usually occur on the mucous membranes such as the throat and tongue in immunocompromised patients and appear white. It would be an unlikely cause of an oral abscess in a patient with a healthy immune system.

Answer C is incorrect. Clostridium perfringens is also a gram-positive anaerobic rod; however, it typically causes food poisoning from meat dishes or myonecrosis (gas gangrene), not dental abscesses.

Answer D is incorrect. Like Actinomyces, Nocardia is a filamentous, beaded, gram-positive bacterium. Unlike Actinomyces, Nocardia is not considered normal flora. It causes pulmonary infections in immunocompromised pa- tients.

Answer E is incorrect. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a gram-positive clustering coccus, not a rod. It is part of the normal skin flora and usually pathologic only in immunocompromised patients.

21/01/2013

Next Question:

Q-13 A 55-year-old woman presents with a painless mass at the angle of the mandible 1 week after
undergoing a dental procedure. On physical examination, her physician notes that the mass is draining pus and yellowish granules. A stained sample from the abscess shows branching gram-positive rods. She is treated with penicillin. What is the most likely causative organism?
(A) Actinomyces israelii
(B) Candida albicans
(C) Clostridium perfringens
(D) Nocardia asteroides
(E) Staphylococcus epidermidis

21/01/2013

Answer to the Q-12 with Explanation:

The correct answer is A. This patient is presenting with Sheehan’s syndrome or postpartum pituitary necrosis, caused by hemorrhage during delivery. Risk factors include pregnancy with multiples (twins or triplets) and abnormal- ities of the placenta. Peripartum hemorrhage predisposes the already enlarged pituitary to ischemia, leading to necrosis of parts of the anterior and/or posterior pituitary. The most common clinical feature of Sheehan’s syndrome is an inability to lactate, caused by damage to the anterior pituitary and decreased prolactin production. Other symptoms include those associated with hypothyroidism (as seen by the pa- tient’s cold intolerance), along with central diabetes insipidus caused by decreased produc- tion of ADH. Diabetes insipidus presents with polyuria and dilute urine in the presence of el- evated serum sodium levels. Decreased FSH and LH levels often lead to amenorrhea and scant p***c and axillary hair growth. Treat- ment involves lifelong hormone replacement therapy of all deficient hormones, along with estrogen and progesterone supplementation.

Answer B is incorrect. Alcohol intake during pregnancy is not associated with any of the symptoms seen in this patient. Instead, it is as- sociated with growth and developmental de- fects in the offspring, such as microcephaly, fa- cial dysmorphism, and malformations of the brain, cardiovascular system, and genitourinary system. Fetal alcohol syndrome is the leading cause of mental retardation and is easily pre- ventable by maternal abstinence from alcohol during pregnancy.

Answer C is incorrect. Endometriosis is a common condition characterized by growth of ectopic endometrial tissue outside the uterus. It generally presents in women 20–40 years old, but its pathogenesis is poorly understood. Although its clinical presentation varies, endo- metriosis can present with pelvic pain associ- ated with the menstrual cycle, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia, or it can be asymptomatic. Endometriosis is a risk factor for ectopic preg- nancy and infertility, and many women who have endometriosis first present with problems getting pregnant. It is not associated with Shee- han’s syndrome.

Answer D is incorrect. Gestational diabetes is a form of diabetes that is present during preg- nancy and is often transient, although overt nongestational diabetes may later develop. Ges- tational diabetes is associated with increased fetal birth weight, increased fetal mortality, and increased incidence of neonatal respiratory dis- tress syndrome. In addition, increased fetal in- sulin levels created in response to maternal glu- cose levels can cause a hypoglycemic crisis after birth, when the maternal supply of glucose is no longer present. Gestational diabetes is not a known risk factor for Sheehan’s syndrome and would not cause this patient to present with the symptoms seen.

Answer E is incorrect. Incorrect use of tampons is associated with toxic shock syndrome (TSS), originally associated with the use of highly ab- sorbent tampons left in the va**na for long peri- ods of time. TSS is caused by an exotoxin pro- duced by Staphylococcus aureus, which grows on the tampon. This toxin is a superantigen that allows nonspecific binding of major histocom- patibility complex class II with T-lymphocyte re- ceptors, resulting in polyclonal T-lymphocyte activation and systemic symptoms. TSS gener- ally presents acutely with fever, hypotension, and desquamation of the palms and soles, nau- sea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

Answer F is incorrect. Having multiple sexual partners is associated with an increased risk of various sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), in- cluding HIV and HPV, the virus associated with cervical cancer. STDs present with various symptoms depending on the underlying infectious agent, but none would cause the symptoms seen in this patient.

Answer G is incorrect. PID is most commonly caused by infection with Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhea, the latter presenting more acutely. Symptoms include fever, cervi- cal motion tenderness, lower abdominal pain, and painful in*******se, although PID is often asymptomatic. Treatment of the underlying cause is important because PID is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy and infertility. It is not associated with Sheehan’s syndrome.

16/01/2013

Next Question:

Q-12 A 28-year-old woman presents to her physician with concerns that she is unable to produce breast milk, despite having given birth approxi- mately 1 month ago. On further questioning she indicates she has been exceptionally thirsty lately, and describes feelings of fatigue and cold intolerance. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities except a scarcity of axillary hair. Laboratory tests reveal a serum sodium level of 150 mEq/L and urinalysis reveals a urine osmolality of 220 mOsm/kg. Which of the following most likely increased the patient’s risk of developing this condition?
(A) Abnormalities of the placenta
(B) Alcohol intake during pregnancy
(C) Endometriosis
(D) Gestational diabetes
(E) Incorrect use of tampons
(F) Multiple sexual partners
(G) Pelvic inflammatory disease

16/01/2013

Answer to the Q-11 with Explanation:

The correct answer is A. This vignette describes a nephrotic syndrome. Spike-and-dome deposits are only found in membranous glom- erulonephritis. Membranous glomerulonephri- tis is an immune complex-mediated disease. Immunofluorescence shows a granular pattern of IgG and complement along the basement membrane. Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of adult-onset nephrotic syndrome. Patients with this disease normally present with a nephrotic picture of gen- eralized edema due to massive loss of albumin and proteins.

Answer B is incorrect. This is a finding of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, an uncommon autoimmune renal disorder that normally affects young individuals (8–30 years of age). The diagnosis is based on a histologic presentation that includes mesangial prolifera- tion and a tram-track appearance on light microscopy. As this patient is 50 years old, this diagnosis is less likely.

Answer C is incorrect. This is a description of the findings in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, an autoimmune disease most fre- quently seen in children. It normally presents a few weeks after a streptococcal infection (throat or skin) with peripheral and periorbital edema, dark, “smoky” urine, and proteinuria. These symptoms are caused by circulating antistreptococcal antibody-antigen complexes that deposit in the glomerular basement membrane, leading to complement activation and glomerular damage. As this patient has otherwise been healthy and is 50 years old, this diagnosis is unlikely.

Answer D is incorrect. This is the main finding in IgA nephropathy (Berger’s disease). This disease presents within several days of an infection (as opposed to poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, which presents weeks after) with a nephritic picture due to IgA deposition in the me- sangium. It is the most common global nephropathy, but it is a mild disease with minimal clinical significance. As this patient has not had a recent infection, this diagnosis is unlikely.

Answer E is incorrect. This is a finding of Alport’s syndrome, a heterogeneous (although most commonly X-linked) genetic disorder with either absent or mutated collagen IV, which leads to a nephritic renal disease, as well as nervous system and ocular disorders. This patient has no other complaints and the edema is a fairly recent finding, making this diagnosis less likely.

11/01/2013

Next Question:

Q-11: A 50-year-old man with a history of large bowel obstruction is diagnosed with colon cancer and undergoes resection of his colon. He returns to his physician for his regular checkup and com- plains that in the past 3 weeks he has not been feeling well and has noticed significant swell- ing of his legs. On physical examination, the physician notes 2+ pitting edema and a blood pressure of 155/94 mm Hg. Urinalysis shows 4+ protein with no RBCs or casts. The patient has otherwise been healthy. Which of the fol- lowing would most likely be present on a kid- ney biopsy from this patient?
(A) A spike-and-dome pattern of deposition on electron microscopy
(B) A tram-track pattern on light microscopy
(C) Lumpy subepithelial deposits on light mi-
croscopy
(D) Nonlinear mesangial staining with IgA im-
munofluorescence
(E) “Splintering” of the lamina densa

11/01/2013

Answer to the Q-10 with Explanation:

The correct answer is D. Over the course of two visits, the patient has exhibited psychotic and residual symptoms characteristic of schizophrenia and related disorders. A diagnosis of schizophrenia, however, requires active phase (“positive”) symptoms, and may include “negative” ones as well, over a period of >6 months. In this case, the patient’s symptoms have lasted

11/01/2013

Answer to the Q-10 with Explanation:

The correct answer is D. Over the course of two visits, the patient has exhibited psychotic and residual symptoms characteristic of schizophrenia and related disorders. A diagnosis of schizophrenia, however, requires active phase (“positive”) symptoms, and may include “negative” ones as well, over a period of >6 months. In this case, the patient’s symptoms have lasted

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